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00:40
@BalarkaSen Wikipedia claims that Lindemann-Weierstrass theorem is equivalent to the following:
If $a_1,\ldots,a_n$ are distinct algebraic numbers, then $e^{a_1},\ldots,e^{a_n}$ are linearly independent over the algebraic numbers.
@DHMO That's literally the statement of L-W
2 days ago, by DHMO
If $a_1, \ldots, a_n$ are linearly independent over the rational numbers, then $e^{a_1}, \ldots, e^{a_n}$ are algebraically independent over the rational numbers.
huh, never seen that formulation before
In transcendental number theory, the Lindemann–Weierstrass theorem is a result that is very useful in establishing the transcendence of numbers. It states that if α1, ..., αn are algebraic numbers which are linearly independent over the rational numbers ℚ, then eα1, ..., eαn are algebraically independent over ℚ; in other words the extension field ℚ(eα1, ..., eαn) has transcendence degree n over ℚ. An equivalent formulation (Baker 1975, Chapter 1, Theorem 1.4), is the following: If α1, ..., αn are distinct algebraic numbers, then the exponentials eα1, ..., eαn are linearly independent over t...
That's basically the first line
And the equivalent formation is the second paragraph
@DHMO Oh, one is over \bar Q, another is over Q
Then that's clear.
00:47
I don't think "algebraically independent over Q" means the same thing as "linearly independent over Q"
No, but "algebraically independent over Q" does mean the same thing as "linearly independent over \bar Q".
\bar Q being algebraic numbers
but why?
the premise is changed as well
from "linearly independent over Q" to "distinct algebraic numbers"
@DHMO Why don't you try to prove it?
I don't have any idea
Prove that "algebraic dependent over Q" implies "linearly dependent over \bar Q", and it's converse.
That's easier.
00:52
did you swap the two sets? right.
Right, fixed.
huh
still no idea
Recall definitions
And give it more than 2 seconds :)
So $e$ and $e^2$ are algebraically dependent over $\Bbb Q$.
and how on earth are they linearly dependent over $\bar {\Bbb Q}$?
In fact, if $ae+be^2=0$ where $a,b \in \bar{\Bbb Q}$
Then $e=-\dfrac a b$
which is a contradiction, since $e$ is transcendental
so I don't see how they are equivalent
@BalarkaSen
@DHMO Yeah, you're right. I'm a little confused. Oops.
Alright, suppose $a_1, \cdots, a_n$ are distinct alg. ints. L-W2 says $e^{a_1}, \cdots, e^{a_n}$ are $\bar{\Bbb Q}$-linearly independent.
If $a_1, \cdots, a_n$ are $\Bbb Q$-linearly independent, L-W1 says $e^{a_1}, \cdots, e^{a_n}$ are $\Bbb Q$-algebraically independent.
To go from LW2 to LW1, assume $a_i$ are $\Bbb Q$-linearly ind. Then $e^{a_i}$ are $\bar{\Bbb Q}$-linearly ind. Suppose for a contradiction $e^{a_1}, \cdots, e^{a_n}$ are $\Bbb Q$-algebraically dependent. Then they satisfy a polynomial relation $P(e^{a_1}, \cdots, e^{a_n}) = 0$, $P$ a poly. with coeffs in $\Bbb Q$.
That's like $\sum p_i e^{q_i} = 0$ where $q_i$ are linear combinations of $a_i$'s, isn't it?
Oh, so there you go. $q_i$'s are all distinct because $a_i$'s are $\Bbb Q$-linearly ind by assumption. So apply L-W2 to $e^{p_1}, e^{p_2}, \cdots$, @DHMO. You break it because you're saying they are $\Bbb Q$-linearly dependent, whereas they are not even $\bar{\Bbb Q}$-linearly dependent.
Ok, this was harder than it looked.
01:20
@BalarkaSen did you mean $e^{q_1}\cdots$?
@BalarkaSen wonderful proof
Yeah, sorry. Thanks for pointing out.
It'd have been more wonderful if I hadn't said the nonsense I told you above :3
heh, let me understand the second theorem (pi is transcendental) before we move on to the third theorem
Yeah, totally
Intresting
@mick welcome
01:32
Hi. Working on other things now srr
If you wanna know for instance math.stackexchange.com/questions/2075456/…
 
13 hours later…
14:34
@DHMO Any new breakthroughs?
@BalarkaSen still reading the proof that pi is transcendental
great.
got quite stuck in the "symmetrical polynomial" thing
if you want to discuss i can try to help
basically the top of P.5
I don't understand a word
14:39
@DHMO Ok, so you want to understand the fundamental theorem of symmetric polynomials, I suppose? That says that if $P(x_1, \cdots, x_n)$ is a polynomial which remains invariant under any permutation of $\{x_1, \cdots, x_n\}$, then $P(x_1, \cdots, x_n) = Q(e_1, \cdots, e_m)$ where $Q$ is also a polynomial, and $e_i$ are the elementary symmetric polynomials on $x_1, \cdots, x_n$.
I looked that up
yup. it's a neat theorem (the general mathematical framework is known as invariant theory)
I don't understand how this theorem applies here at all
let me read what they're doing then
14:59
@DHMO Sorry I got disconnected. Why's $\sum_{k= 1}^n f^j(\alpha_k)$ an integer polynomial in $a_d\alpha_i$? Shouldn't that be $\alpha_i$?
Oh there's a factor of $a_d^{stuff}$ on $f$.
@DHMO Once you agree that's symmetric, the rest seems straightforward. It's a polynomial on the symmetric polynomials in $a_d\theta_i$ - those are coefficients of the min. poly. of $\pi$, which are integers.
I don't get it
can you be explicit? which part do you not get?
What does "inner sum over k" refer to?
15:15
$\sum_{k =1}^n f^j(\alpha_k)$.
why is it a polynomial?
Is f(x) a polynomial with integer coefficients?
It's a polynomial; not in integers coefficients.
I can't wrap my head around f(x)
The sum, however, is a poly. with integer coefficients - that's what they are proving
but the sum isn't even a polynomial
15:18
Polynomial in $\alpha_1, \alpha_2, \cdots, \alpha_n$, no?
but they aren't variables
So what? A polynomial need not be on "variables".
It's a linear combination - with integers coefficients - of terms of the form $\alpha_1^{p_1} \cdots \alpha_n^{p_n}$. That's it.
We are trying to prove that the whole sum is an integer.
"It is clear that this is a symmetric polynomial with integer coefficients..."
why are the coefficients integer?
I think I get it
@BalarkaSen why do we need to prove that they are algebraic integers?
@DHMO $a_d\alpha_1, \cdots, a_d\alpha_n$? Those are algebraic integers by assumption.
@BalarkaSen I mean, the proof specifically mentioned that $a_d \alpha_i$ are algebraic integers
yes, I understand that they are algebraic integers
but why do we need to point that out?
15:51
@DHMO My internet is terrible today. Interesting point; it doesn't seem relevant.
Well, not directly, anyway. The elem. sym. polys on $a_d\alpha_i$ are coefficients of the min poly of $a_di\pi$, and that's the relevant bit
but even if the min poly isn't monic
the coefficients are still integers
the elementary symmetric polynomials on the roots of a non-monic polynomial are not in general integers, @DHMO
oh, thanks
 
2 hours later…
18:13
@BalarkaSen so are we done with pi?
@DHMO I didn't make an effort to understand the proof yet. Can you explain it in a couple of sentences?
ah, tomorrow.
you know my time i know your time
@DHMO Sure.
You might like this, by the way @DHMO
@BalarkaSen thanks, i'll read tomorrow
if we keep studying the proofs of these transcendence theorems per week maybe we'll eventually get to Zilber's proof-attempt at Schanuel's conjecture lol

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