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07:52
@LeakyNun Haha you want to make people here scratch heads, right? For others' reference, the conversation started in the main chat-room here and the solution is here and here.
Note that the computable reals encoded as Dedekind lower cuts does not seem to have computable addition or negation, whereas their encoding as Cauchy sequences has computable addition, negation and multiplication.
 
9 hours later…
16:33
Hi! If the formula is not true, then there's a seq $s$ in $\Sigma$ st $s$ satisfies $(\forall x_i)\mathscr{B}$ and $s$ doesn't satisfy $(\exists x_i)\mathscr{B}$ Here I want to ask if $(\exists x_i)\mathscr{B}$ and $\neg(\forall x_i)\neg\mathscr{B}$ are equivalent, since the lack of parantheses makes it hard to see this for me. Can someone tell me about the thought process here?
@LeylaAlkan Yes, $\lnot (\forall x)$ is $(\lnot (\forall x))$, and $(\exists x)R\equiv (\lnot (\forall x))\lnot R$(it my be a definition, or a theorem, depends on the convention)
Oh, okay. Thanks
16:50
Is it correct to say if a sequence $\vec a$ satisfies $(\forall x)( \varphi\rightarrow \psi)$ and $(\forall x)\varphi$, then it also satisfies $(\forall x) \psi$ ?
@LeylaAlkan do you know that $(\forall x)R$ is satisfied if and only if $R$ is?
yes
Then it's correct
Yes
17:25
Can we deduce $\vec a$ satisfies $\neg\psi $ from the part "$\vec a$ doesn't satisfy $(\forall x)\psi $
@Holo ?
In particular, if $\vec a$ doesn't satisfy $\psi $, can we say that $\vec a$ satisfies $\neg\psi $ ?
18:12
Here's another one:
I want to show $(\exists x)( \forall y)\varphi\rightarrow( \forall y)(\exists x)\varphi $ is logically valid
My attempt:

Assume it's not logically valid. Then, there's an interpretation $\mathscr{M}$ for which it's not true. Hence, there's a sequence $\vec a$ in the domain $M$ of $\mathscr{M}$ such that $\vec a$ satisfies $(\exists x)( \forall y)\varphi$ and $\vec a$ doesn't satisfy $( \forall y)(\exists x)\varphi$ ,i.e $\vec a$ doesn't satisfy $(\exists x)\varphi$, I intuitively see that this contradicts to the previous part "$\vec a$ satisfies $(\exists x)( \forall y)\varphi$" ,but I do
18:47
1) $\vec a$ satisfies $(\exists x)( \forall y)\varphi$ $\iff$ $\vec a$ doesn't satisfy $(\forall x)( \exists y)\neg\varphi$ $\iff$ $\vec a$ doesn't satisfy $( \exists y)\neg\varphi$ $\iff$ $\vec a$ satisfies $( \forall y)\varphi$ $\iff$ $\vec a$ satisfies $\varphi$

2)$\vec a$ doesn't satisfy $( \forall y)(\exists x)\varphi$ $\iff$ $\vec a$ doesn't satisfy $(\exists x)\varphi$ $\iff$ $\vec a$ satisfies $(\forall x)\neg\varphi$ $\iff$ $\vec a$ satisfies $\neg\varphi$
Since $\vec a$ satisfies both $\varphi$ and $\neg\varphi$, which is a contradiction, then the formula must be valid.
Is this okay now?
19:30
Sorry, I wasn't here @LeylaAlkan , no, "A does not satisfy φ" does not implies "A satisfy ¬φ". It is possible that from a set of formulas you can't prove φ and yet you also can not prove ¬φ.

Also, to prove that claim I think it will be easier to use the definition of the interpretation $\mathscr{M}$
19:44
I saw this in the book, that's why I did it that way
19:55
@LeylaAlkan I thought that you used sequence as in theory from the language(in which case, take A=ZF, φ=AC), from the pic I can see I was wrong, what does wf means and what does s*(t[i]) mean?(it looks more like the definition of an interpreter in a model)
wf stands for wellformed expression
So, now my solution is valid right hahahha
It is weird wording choice for the definitions, but yes, unless I missed something there you are correct
20:11
Well, thank you then, you've been very helpful :)
 
1 hour later…
21:13
Let's take example (a). So, now before attempting to find a counterexample how do we know sth is not valid? I couldn't prove
22:05
@LeylaAlkan (∀x)P is a requirement on the behavior of P as a whole, while, P⇒Q is a case by case requirement
22:19
@LeylaAlkan - In what way are you trying to prove that it's not valid prior to finding a counterexample? A proof of the existence of a counterexample is the only thing that constitutes such a proof.
@MaliceVidrine I think they meant an intuition for the cases where the question will be "prove or disprove"
Ah. I think to that the answer is "you probably won't have an intuition beforehand, without some experience" :P Though keeping in mind the counterintuitive behaviors of the implication connective is a good place to start in this example.
What do you mean by the counterintuitive behaviors of the implication connective ? :)
I think the easiest model for seeing why that particular one isn't valid, as an example, is to take the natural numbers, and let one of the predicate symbols mean "is odd" and the other mean "is even". Then the antecedent is true and the consequent false.
@LeylaAlkan - Most people find unusual the fact that a conditional with a true consequent, or a false antecedent, is automatically true. Because it seems unusual, people starting out in logic often forget to exploit that fact.
@MaliceVidrine I prefer to start with finding fintie models, like {0,1}, A^M[2]=F,A[1]^M(0)=T,A[1]^M(1)=F
22:30
In particular, the fact that we can make the antecedent in (a) true for very silly reasons is handy for finding a counterexample.
@Holo - I always find it easier to look for examples in the naturals or reals. Everyone has their own groove.
@MaliceVidrine True
@MaliceVidrine Yeah actually odd-even thing is used for proofs in logic quite a lot as I've seen so far, and I see your point as well. So I should find a way to make the antecedent true and the consequent false.
22:51
Yup. And for the consequent in this case to be false, you just need one element in the universe of your model that is A_1 and not A_2. The overall intuition that guided me for the counterexample is that the antecedent is somehow "very easy to make true" and the consequent is somehow "very easy to make false".
Which is, of course, informal and not always obvious, but it works out surprisingly often :P
Surely not without some experience
Definitely takes experience. Not an overwhelming amount, but some.
There's this question
Since they do not contain atomic propositions, I can't prove if they are logically valid. Put aside the ones that I found counterexamples for, what about the ones that are not logically valid but I failed to find a counterexample ?
:D
So one thing about logically valid sentences is that their negations are inconsistent. So if you can't find a counterexample, work out what their negations are and see if you can derive a contradiction.
23:06
good approach
Still doesn't help for the ones that still don't turn out to be valid, but that's one of those things there's not really a remedy for besides exceptionally good imagination. Personally, I'm terrible at finding counterexamples for anything even moderately complicated :P
23:32
I found nothing so far, could you help me for some of them so that I could do the rest on my own?
The first one is literally strange
23:46
Actually, this interpretation works for (a) . I think this is what you also meant, right? @Holo
So that one is valid. One way to see this is just to negate it (which just means dropping the initial negation symbol). Then instantiate the existential variable; we don't have any other free variables, so we can just use y. Then this says for all x, R(x,y) <-> -R(x,x); but if you instantiate the universal quantifier as y, and you'd have R(y,y) <-> -R(y,y), which is obviously a contradiction.
Hope I find you guys here tomorrow as well, I need to get some rest now
See you later!
And I hope the writers of that exercise only mean "finding an appropriate interpretation" for the cases when they are not valid, because an interpretation doesn't tell you anything about validity...

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