I want to show $(\exists x)( \forall y)\varphi\rightarrow( \forall y)(\exists x)\varphi $ is logically valid
My attempt:
Assume it's not logically valid. Then, there's an interpretation $\mathscr{M}$ for which it's not true. Hence, there's a sequence $\vec a$ in the domain $M$ of $\mathscr{M}$ such that $\vec a$ satisfies $(\exists x)( \forall y)\varphi$ and $\vec a$ doesn't satisfy $( \forall y)(\exists x)\varphi$ ,i.e $\vec a$ doesn't satisfy $(\exists x)\varphi$, I intuitively see that this contradicts to the previous part "$\vec a$ satisfies $(\exists x)( \forall y)\varphi$" ,but I do…