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10:00 AM
MS: Let ⬜P denote the sentence over FM that translates the NL sentence "There is a string E and proof C such that E is a valid encoding of the execution of FM on (C,P) that ends with acceptance.", for any sentence P over FM.
 
Okay
 
NL: Okay that's not very satisfactory; MS is not supposed to be able to talk about NL. But for the sake of sanity I hope you know what I mean so that I don't have to be completely formal. =D
NL: That's why mathematicians almost never write completely formal proofs.
 
I'm back, lemme read the convo
 
@user21820 I feel I should join some advanced "English" programme first. Become fluent in English first. and then talk about logic. :(
 
@user21820 Does ⇒ even mean anything?
 
10:03 AM
@Mathmore That's not the problem here; it's just that in logic we keep having to track which system we are in and which system we are analyzing.
 
@Mathmore what's your native language?
 
@LeakyNun I was just going to point that out. Our FM is supposed to be foundational, and presumably it uses classical logic for sentences involving just finite strings.
 
@user21820 I thought you said "FM is just a program that accepts/rejects pairs of strings"
 
Although my undergrad and grad education was done in English, but we used English only to write exams. Else we talked in Marathi or Hindi.
 
10:06 AM
well I know nothing about Hindi/Marathi so I can't help you :P
 
@user21820 can you put forth the goal of this discussion? Is it about understanding incompleteness theorem?
 
@LeakyNun Yes, which is why there is a little catch. Earlier I said "any reasonable foundational system". Later I said "FM can reason about finite strings". To be completely rigorous about this we can do as in my post about the incompleteness theorems via a translation function, but I'm going for the intuitive way now.
@Mathmore Once we prove (D1) to (D3) we will almost immediately get the constructive incompleteness theorem for FM.
 
@LeakyNun @user21820 Even I thought the same. "FM is just aprogram that accepts/rejects pairs of string"
Is FM displaying some kind of duality? Once a program and other time a system?
@user21820 okay.
 
@Mathmore It does. I don't want to explain the translation function now, as it's a distraction. Just imagine FM as some crazy formal system (represented by a proof verifier program) but that can perform (via some translation) the classical reasoning about finite strings.
 
:o
 
10:09 AM
FM may not accept classical logic in general. For example FM may not allow you to use LEM (law of excluded middle) for all statements.
 
(y)
Okay
 
But we need to assume that FM can perform classical reasoning for strings.
So FM should be able to prove (the translation of) "For every strings x,y,z we have (x+y)+z = x+(y+z)."
 
Okay
 
Makes sense?
 
Yup. makes sense.
 
10:11 AM
So now I'll sketch how to prove (D1).
 
Lets prove D1
 
(D1) intuitively says that whenever FM proves P then FM itself can see this fact.
How so? Well, if FM really proves P then FM accepts (C,P) for some string C. So we have a finite computation and FM itself can verify each step of that computation.
If this makes sense then that's all there is to it.
 
C is proof and E is string
 
I guess you should look at a rudimentary example.
Let P = "∀x,y,z ( x+(y+z) = (x+y)+z )".
If FM proves P, then there is a computation E encoding the acceptance of FM on (C,P) for some string C.
 
"So we have a finite computation and FM can verify each step of that computation." how?
Okay go on...
 
10:16 AM
In this case, C could be just a 1-line proof, because P is one of the axioms.
And likewise the computation could be a short one because FM on seeing the sentence P is an axiom immediately accepts.
 
umhmm
okay...
 
Anyway FM can carry out every string operation that programs do.
 
fine
 
So FM can reason correctly about the execution and output of FM on (C,P).
It just takes a few lines of proof for each step of the execution.
 
hmmm
then
 
10:21 AM
That's it. There is a classical proof whose length is proportional to the length of the execution, and FM can perform each step of that classical proof.
 
looked easy
:p
 
So FM accepts (C',⬜P) for some string C'.
Which is what we want
@Mathmore The idea is easy, but the details (if actually written out in full) are hairy.
 
@user21820 Yup don't go in details. As I am not familiar with this stuff I might take too much time to comprehend.
D2 ?
Also can you provide me a reference book based on this conversation?
 
@Mathmore Godel without tears is where I learnt some of this from. But the only place I know of with the full generalization is my post...
 
oh
that post which you have quoted above?
 
10:27 AM
Yeap.
Godel without tears is an excellent book, not only because I first clearly understood the incompleteness theorems after reading it, but also because it includes some philosophical explanations of the import of the theorems.
That's why I listed it among my recommended reference texts.
 
oh great!
 
(D2) uses similar reasoning, except that we must produce a proof within FM itself. That's okay. We reason in MS (more like NL) that such a proof exists!
(D2) intuitively says that FM knows that if P is provable and (P⇒Q) is provable then Q is provable too.
 
Yup intuitively it looks like that
 
Well since FM can perform classical reasoning for sentences about strings, it suffices (think Fitch-style) to show that within FM, under the context where we have ⬜P and ⬜(P⇒Q), we can deduce ⬜Q.
 
"think Fitch-style" probably isn't helpful if he doesn't know what it is
 
10:32 AM
I think I understood D3 as well
 
@LeakyNun I did say "contexts and indentation". =)
@Mathmore That's great! Intuitive understanding goes a long way.
 
classical reasoning means?
 
For (D2), we actually need the translation of classical sentences about strings into FM to be nice enough so that we can 'join' together proofs of P and (P⇒Q) to get a proof of Q.
Classical reasoning about strings here refers to classical first-order logic in the language of strings under concatenation.
 
and classical first-order logic is? Is it the basic stuff we learn in logic?
 
More or less. Not, and, or, implies, forall, exists, and all the syntactic and deductive rules.
 
10:36 AM
I know concatenations. :) a, aa, aaa, abababa, abbbaa, bbaaabbababababa,... and so on. These are concatenations.
 
Classical reasoning about strings should include the basic properties of strings, such as associativity under concatenation, and a few others.
 
By basic I mean elementary logic taught as a very first introduction of logic to students.
 
@Mathmore I don't know what is taught to students in your place. Any proper first-order logic system will do. You need all the deductive rules.
 
I was taught, truth tables, modus ponens, tollens, rules of inferences and paradox as introduction.
 
Not enough.
It needs to include the deductive rules for quantifiers.
 
10:39 AM
I have never studied any term saying "first order logic"
Googling the term...
 
You can see my post for an example of a complete system:
4
A: Predicate logic: How do you self-check the logical structure of your own arguments?

user21820Truth tables are not enough to capture first-order logic (with quantifiers), so we use inference rules instead. Each inference rule is chosen to be sound, meaning that if you start with true statements and use the rule you will deduce only true statements. We say that these rules are truth-preser...

This gives just the logical rules, not any axioms. There are only 4 axioms needed for strings, which you can see here:
3
A: How can Peano ever be proved consistent?

user21820You ask: How can Peano ever be proved consistent? Firstly, Peano is a person, and I'm certain that nobody can prove that he is consistent. I assume you're asking for an absolute proof of consistency of (first-order) PA. That was more or less Hilbert's goal, namely to give a finitist proof...

Ignore all the other parts for now.
 
It's funny that @LeakyNun is about to enter undergrad program having known all this stuff and I... who completed graduation (Masters) and still don't know these things.
 
@Mathmore Most mathematics students don't even know all the deductive rules for classical logic...
Don't worry too much about what you didn't know in the past.
 
@user21820 :o
 
I've to go for some time. Will be back later.
 
10:41 AM
Okay.
Bye
 
11:05 AM
Okay back.
 
11:20 AM
@LeakyNun @Mathmore: Actually it would have been gentler to introduce the non-constructive proof to you first, but since we're already halfway through we might as well finish it.
For (D3) the idea is simply to carry out the reasoning for (D1) inside FM itself. Namely, our earlier reasoning in MS gives (D1), and translating that reasoning into FM gives (D3).
 
I see
 
Is @Mathmore going to be back later? We need just one more ingredient called the modal fixed-point lemma, and then we can perform Curry's paradox to get the incompleteness theorems.
@LeakyNun: If you want to start first, you can try the following proof-puzzle.
Given premises "⬜P⇒P" and "Q⇔⬜(Q⇒P)", prove "P" (within FM) using only propositional logic and (D1) to (D3).
 
11:41 AM
sorry later
 
Sure.
 
lol i dont even know how to prove it informally
@user21820
 
You mimic Curry's paradox.
 
oh right
 
Q is supposed to be like ( If Q then P. ) in Curry's paradox.
In Curry's paradox you actually can deduce Q and then P.
Here you can't because of the extra ⬜, and that's where you use the first premise to get through the last step.
 
11:53 AM
suppose Q
then, box(Q implies P)
well shit
 
I think that approach won't work, because you can't deduce ⬜Q under "If Q".
 
D1?
 
Nope. Be careful! (D1) only says "If you can prove Q then you can prove ⬜Q." You haven't actually proven Q yet.
 
oh
 
Try "If ⬜Q: ..." instead.
 
11:56 AM
that wouldnt work either as I can’t get Q
 
How do you know?
To get Q, you would have to get (⬜Q⇒P).
 
brackets?
 
Oops!!
I mistyped my question...
Given premises "⬜P⇒P" and "Q⇔(⬜Q⇒P)", prove "P" (within FM) using only propositional logic and (D1) to (D3).
 
????
 
Box has highest precedence.
 
12:07 PM
suppose box Q
 
You can type the whole proof nicely indented in your own text editor, and then paste here and click "fixed font".
 
box(Q implies(box Q implies P)) from premise and D1
therefore box (box Q implies P)
this is getting nowhere
wait
 
It is getting there.
 
by D2 we have box P
 
No you're missing something.
(D2) can't give you box P.
But remember you're under "box Q".
 
12:12 PM
we are in the same indentation
suppose box Q:
-> box(box Q implies P)
-> box P
-> P
box Q implies P
 
@LeakyNun Why?
 
D2?
 
Nope.
What instance of (D2) are you using?
At least, not completely correct. Nearly there though.
 
box Q and box(box Q implies P) implies box P
wait i need box box Q don’t i
 
@LeakyNun Yea that's the error.
 
12:14 PM
D3
 
Correct. Now you have Q at outermost level.
And now you can use (D1).
 
cool
interesting
 
So this argument rests on just the premises "⬜P⇒P" and "Q⇔(⬜Q⇒P)". It turns out that the second premise can be proven for some suitable Q!
So if P = "0=1" then from just premise "¬⬜(0=1)" we can prove "0=1"!
This proves the second incompleteness theorem (external form).
Going to be away again. See you later!
 
see you
@user21820 to prove “0=1” you need box(0=1) right?
 
1:07 PM
@LeakyNun No you need "not box (0=1)". From "box (0=1)" you cannot normally prove "0=1".
 
then how do you prove "0=1"?
 
P = "0=1", and you have shown that from "⬜P⇒P" and "Q⇔(⬜Q⇒P)" you can deduce P.
"⬜P⇒P" is equivalent to "¬⬜(0=1)".
 
heh?
 
@LeakyNun I don't understand what problem you have with this. Your proof holds for any P, and we are merely applying the result to a single simple P, namely "0=1".
 
Back!
@user21820
 
1:23 PM
@Mathmore Okay so basically:
1 hour ago, by user21820
Given premises "⬜P⇒P" and "Q⇔(⬜Q⇒P)", prove "P" (within FM) using only propositional logic and (D1) to (D3).
 
So I have to prove this?
@user21820
 
@LeakyNun solved this question already. Give me a minute and I will type here the full proof in one piece.
 
yup sure
 
so I was formalising the epsilon-delta method of establishing a limit. It was a very fun exercise.
 
box p implies p.
q equiv ( box q implies p ).
box ( q implies ( box q implies p ) ). [D1]
If box q:
	box box q. [D3]
	box ( box q implies p ). [D2]
	box p. [D2]
	p.
box q implies p.
q.
box q. [D1]
p.
 
1:29 PM
It's been so long since I touched any analysis. Comes down to just finding a delta that's equal to an expression in terms of epsilon. Useful reminder. After that the existential and universal quantifiers fall into place really quickly.
 
@Mathmore Above is the proof. It mimics Curry's paradox.
Gah the wikipedia link is not illuminative.
 
What is Curry's paradox?
 
@user21820 wikipedia links tend to never be illuminative because they don't write down a formal statement of the problem.
 
@Mathmore I'll type it. It's very short and simple.
 
Is it also called as lier's paradox?
"This statement is false"
 
1:32 PM
For any assertion p:
	Let q = ( If this assertion is true, then p is true. ).
	If q is true:
		If q is true then p is true. [Def of q]
		p is true.
	If q is true then p is true.
	q is true. [Def of q]
	p is true.
@Mathmore: No it's not the liar paradox and does not involve negation. What is the error in the above 'paradox'?
@shredalert @LeakyNun: You are not allowed to answer this question.
 
@user21820 don't worry, too lazy to do much atm.
@user21820 really deserves some credit. He's always educating on here.
 
Okay
Let's see
If q is true then the statement : "If this assertion is true then p is true" is a true statement. That means either "This assertion is true" and "p is true" are both true. or "This assertion is true" is false and "p is true" is true, or "This assertion is true" is false and "p is true" is also false.
@user21820
@shredalert yeah. he/she is so much dedicated to educate.
 
@Mathmore I'm not sure what you mean here. The question is to find the error in the above 'paradox', since its conclusion is clearly nonsense.
 
@user21820 I am thinking.
 
Ah okay.
@shredalert I like teaching logic, since it is so important. Also, I have a good expectation that those I teach will in turn teach others. =)
 
1:44 PM
It seemingly uses modus ponens but I want to take more time to figure out the error
 
@Mathmore He does, I've learnt a lot from him already.
@user21820 Trying to pass the baton on here. My friends think I'm evangelical about Fitch-style natural deduction. lol
 
@Mathmore Modus ponens is considered valid. The 'paradox' applies to classical logic. What you can do is to check one line at a time and identify the deductive rule that permits it.
 
If q is true then "this assertion is true" might be false as well.
 
@Mathmore Be careful with taking a phrase out of context; "this assertion" refers to a particular one.
 
this assertion means q itself right?
 
1:48 PM
Yeap.
 
so q can't be both true and false
 
Yeap.
 
It's like infinite regress? if q is true, then "If this assertion is true then p is true" is true as a whole statement right?
then you applied modus ponens there
and got p is true.
is that what you did?
 
@Mathmore But it's valid, whether or not it is self-referential.
If q is true, then by definition (which is why I labelled "Def of Q") that whole statement is true as you say.
 
but we assumed that q is true first
 
1:51 PM
Of course, under assumption that q is true we deduced that p is true. That's just the first half.
Then we collapsed that to a single implication. Remember what I discussed earlier about the meaning of ( P implies Q )? It's exactly that.
 
ahh... why can't I figure out this mess...
 
It's okay. I can tell you the answer. You will never make this mistake again. =)
 
still scratching my head
wait
let me think
 
Okay.
 
for few more seconds
But by this way we can prove any statement is true. Substitute P : 0=1.
q has to be true always.
 
1:57 PM
Yes that's the 'paradox' since it applies to any assertion p.
So there must be an error somewhere.
 
and by modus ponens p too has to be true.
Yeah
 
Let me just tell you haha.. Don't be concerned that you can't get it. Most students can't either the first time around.
The error is here: "Let q = ( If this assertion is true, then p is true. )."
 
The error is we are identifying q with $q \implies p$
yay we both typed same thing
hahahahahahahahahahahahahahah
:D
 
Yes that's right. But more precisely, the error is in claiming the existence of such an assertion q.
 
Ultimate bliss moment
 
2:00 PM
Before you name anything, you must first deduce that it exists.
 
actually
so q can never be equal to q implies p
 
It actually can, but only when p is true.
 
hahah. Yupppp
 
Okay so the reason this is relevant to Godel's incompleteness theorem is that we just need a minor variation of it.
 
okay
 
2:01 PM
Compare Curry's paradox:
29 mins ago, by user21820
For any assertion p:
	Let q = ( If this assertion is true, then p is true. ).
	If q is true:
		If q is true then p is true. [Def of q]
		p is true.
	If q is true then p is true.
	q is true. [Def of q]
	p is true.
And the proof of what is called Lob's theorem (external):
32 mins ago, by user21820
box p implies p.
q equiv ( box q implies p ).
box ( q implies ( box q implies p ) ). [D1]
If box q:
	box box q. [D3]
	box ( box q implies p ). [D2]
	box p. [D2]
	p.
box q implies p.
q.
box q. [D1]
p.
In line 2 we have the premise "q equiv ( box q implies p ).", which actually can be deduced for some suitable q.
The difference is that it's not "q equiv ( q implies p )".
 
yeah i wondered how "q equiv (box q implies p)" appeared there
yup box q and single q are different
 
But that apparently minor change is all that is needed to make it possible to be deduced. That change makes the proof of Curry's paradox fail to go through, except unless we also have the first premise "box p implies p".
In sum, Lob's theorem (which we have just proven) states that if FM proves ( ⬜p⇒p ) then FM also proves p.
 
Can you reproduce D1, D2 and D3 here again so that it's easy for me to see both the arguments
 
4 hours ago, by user21820
MS: Given any sentence P over FM we have the following:
(D1) If FM proves P then FM proves ⬜P.
(D2) FM proves ( ⬜P∧⬜(P⇒Q)⇒⬜Q ). (Note that the precedence order from highest to lowest is ⬜,∧,⇒.)
(D3) FM proves ( ⬜P⇒⬜⬜P ).
Note that (D1) can only be used on something that is proven at the outermost level (not under any assumption).
 
How did you use D1 very first time?
@user21820
 
2:11 PM
From "q equiv ( box q implies p )." deduce "q implies ( box q implies p )." and then apply (D1).
 
ahhh...yeah
Not able to understand the step where you used D2 for the first time
Understood!!
no need to explain
:)
I grabbed a pen and a paper now it's clear to me @user21820
 
@Mathmore Great! There's always a trade-off between conciseness and clarity.
 
wait understood only that step where you used D2 first time... scribbling on paper till I get entire thing
 
Yea sure.
 
Done! @user21820. The picture is clear now
What next?
 
2:26 PM
Okay great! Now consider what Lob's theorem says when P = "0=1".
Given premises "⬜(0=1)⇒(0=1)" and "Q⇔(⬜Q⇒(0=1))", we can prove "0=1" (within FM).
 
Hahaha yupp ugly truth
 
First premise is equivalent to "¬⬜(0=1)" (@LeakyNun do you get it now?).
Note that this pretty much says "FM does not prove 0=1"!
 
First premise is equivalent to "(negation ( box p ) ) or p" right?
 
Yes.
 
Then how does that lead to only "negation box p" ?
how did you perform elimination?
Oh because p : 0=1 is false thats why?
 
2:30 PM
0=1 is a contradiction.
 
yeah yeah
gotcha
How does it says that "FM does not prove 0=1" ?
 
@user21820 oh, lol
 
5 hours ago, by user21820
MS: Let ⬜P denote the sentence "FM proves P", for any sentence P over FM.
Recall that it wasn't clear what this meant, so the more precise definition was:
5 hours ago, by user21820
MS: Let ⬜P denote the sentence "There is a string E and proof C such that E is a valid encoding of the execution of FM on (C,P) that ends with acceptance.", for any sentence P over FM.
But the first version is how we want to think about "⬜P".
 
Oh we have a paradox then. we have (negation box p) and (box p) together.
 
@Mathmore Wait we don't have that.
"¬⬜(0=1)" says "FM does not prove 0=1".
 
2:34 PM
@user21820 we can prove 0=1 (within FM).
That says we have box 0=1
 
Actually that just says we can prove contradiction within FM.
 
@Mathmore we have a contradiction, not a paradox.
 
If you want to get "box 0=1" after that, you can by (D1). But it's not necessary since you already have a contradiction from "0=1".
 
yes yes contradiction. Sorry
@LeakyNun
 
Let me put it more symbolically.
Lob's theorem yields:
If FM proves "⬜(0=1)⇒(0=1)" and proves "Q⇔(⬜Q⇒(0=1))" then FM proves "0=1".
 
2:37 PM
Okay
What does it mean when we can prove a contradiction within FM?
Is it like a third possibility?
True, false and both "true and false"? But in logic it's not possible right?
 
@Mathmore it's time to introduce the terms "complete" and "consistent" :P
 
@Mathmore It means FM is utterly useless.. When FM can prove that 0=1 it's time to discard FM.
 
@LeakyNun what's that?
Yeah useless. Throw it away. so moral of the story?
 
@Mathmore complete: for any proposition P, we have FM proves P or FM proves not P [or both]
consistent: FM does not prove contradiction
 
Complete means FM can prove both as well? :o
 
2:41 PM
@Mathmore yes
 
if something is complete then it might not be consistent
 
@LeakyNun This is okay if FM is a classical formal system. As I said earlier, we have to do things slightly differently if we wish to catch all formal systems.
 
@Mathmore correct
now, Godel's incompleteness theorem says that any "reasonable" system can't be both complete and consistent
if you force it to be consistent, congratulations, you have something where both it and its negation cannot be proved
if you want it be complete, congratulations, it will be inconsistent and be useless
 
@LeakyNun yeah I got that
 
such is life
can't be perfect
 
2:42 PM
lollll
 
@LeakyNun: Wait till you see self-verifying formal systems.
 
@user21820 ?
 
You'll find out if you read enough of my posts haha.. Not the time to talk about it now.
 
I have seen people using the term incompleteness theorem in philosophy, biology, physics, and what not and some mathematicians destroying their claims to be 'bullshit'
 
@Mathmore Most of the time, the mathematicians are right.
 
2:44 PM
incompleteness is only confined to logic as per I have read. You don't find it's applications in life, or in some nebula or whatever lol
 
@Mathmore: What @LeakyNun just said above applies to classical formal systems, but I do not want to restrict to those otherwise one could easily claim that there might be non-classical formal systems that avoid the problem.
 
@LeakyNun @user21820
oh
 
The generalization would also show that it is not confined to logic.
 
@user21820
 
@user21820 what's the version for non-classical systems?
 
2:46 PM
non-classical system?
 
@LeakyNun That's why you cannot just define consistency and completeness your way.
 
I am merely getting the feel of classical system
our FM was classical or not?
 
@user21820 yes so I'm asking you what's the version of the definition for non-classical systems
 
@Mathmore No I didn't assume that. Remember I said all we require is that FM can perform classical reasoning for strings. It is free to do funny reasoning for other things, or not even reasoning.
Also, remember that I defined "⬜P" precisely to be some sentence about strings.
 
hmm hmm
 
2:49 PM
"0=1" is just a false arithmetical sentence. In the string version take it to denote a false sentence about strings such as "the string with a single zero symbol is equal to the empty string".
Now define Con(FM) to be literally the sentence "¬⬜(0=1)".
 
Okay what's next in pandora's box?
@user21820
 
⬜¬⬜(0=1) implies 0=1
 
From now on I'll let "false" denote the false sentence that we use, whether about natural numbers or strings.
And we say that FM is arithmetically-consistent iff FM does not prove "false".
 
amirite?
@user21820 falsum
 
okay
 
2:54 PM
So if FM is arithmetically-consistent then FM does not prove "Con(FM)" by Lob's theorem, because we can show that FM proves "Q⇔(⬜Q⇒false)" for some suitable Q.
 
@user21820 do we need diagonalization for that Q?
I don't understand why you're rejecting my definitions as classical but then you're talking about arithmetic consistency
 
@LeakyNun Because non-classical systems may not obey classical logic so it would be meaningless to talk about full consistency or completeness.
 
But FM proved ( negation box 0=1 ). Am I right?
@user21820
 
@Mathmore it doesn't
 
No it cannot.
 
2:57 PM
oh yess!!!
sorry
 
So we would get the second incompleteness theorem if we can construct a suitable Q as needed above.
Because if FM is arithmetically-consistent, then Con(FM) is clearly true but FM cannot prove it.
 

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