@BandeiraGustavo First and foremost category theory and logic. Coming with that, axiomatic set theory (forcing etc.) has been placed on my possible areas of future investigation.
@BandeiraGustavo (Referring to your comment on reading books) Hm, I would never do multiple passes in the same book. I think it would be much more beneficial to do a superficial pass in one book and then delve deeper into a different book on the same subject.
@skullpatrol I'm almost sure I never did recommend one. But presumably you mean Logicomix, as it's the only one I know of that pertains to mathematics.
@mike I know some stuff about graph algorithms, what did you want to know?
@mike Oops didn't see this, what you're looking for is a Hamiltonian path, one way of looking at the problem is as follows: Add a new vertex in connected to all other vertices, find a Hamiltonian cycle in the new graph (by normal means) then remove the new vertex you added and you will be left with a Hamiltonian path in your old graph.
What is the easiest way to show that the solution of $1 = x \log x$ is $x = e^{\Omega}$, where $\Omega$ is defined to satisfy $1 = \Omega \cdot e^{\Omega}$.
@vvavepacket Well, usually it is accompanied with the "set builder" notation. That is $S=\{x:P(x)\}$ where $P$ is some property $x$ should have for it to be in the set. Have you heard about the "Axiom Schema of Specification"?
@vvavepacket Well, naïvely it is something like this: "To every set $A$ and to every condition $P(x)$ imposed on the elements of $A$, there is a set $B$ such that $x\in B\iff x\in A$ and $P(x)$ holds."
But $1/n$ satisfies that the set $\{1/n:n\geq 1\}$ is dense between $\limsup 1/n$ and $\liminf 1/n$ because between those two there only the 0 which can approximated by sub sequences of 1/n
Oh! You counter example was for the other thing!
Yes that's right, $x_n\to 0$ it's not a necessary condition to do not diverges properly
If the sequence weren't of continuous functions one could make it nowhere convergent (just use what I made, but with indicator functions instead of triangles).
@skullpatrol My pleasure. The expression is misused vastly more than it is used correctly. Ever since I learned that I always used it wrong, I try to use it correctly wherever I sensibly can. :)
@Shobhit There are four cases to consider. Those with linear factors should be easiest, but indeed, it may be hard. You can e.g. try to employ modular arithmetic under the assumption that one of these linear factors is prime.
@PeterTamaroff Yes, or first you take the "even" sawtooths for fixed $n$, and then the odd, but that's essentially just a permutation of your sequence.
@PeterTamaroff Mh. You take one extra $g_i$ per $n$, which instigates a (conceptual) mismatch; you can "fix" this by putting the two half triangles in one $g_i$.
@PeterTamaroff At some points, the $g_i$s will be wider than the $f_i$s they are in between. I think this is a bit ugly. But it does not fault the example, of course.
It's perfectly clear, but not as aesthetically appealing as possible. :)
@PeterTamaroff Yes, but since you take one $g_i$ more, there will be this mismatch (the $f_i$s having gone one level of width down, but the $g_i$s not yet).
@vvavepacket , your questions attracted me ! i hope i can know the answer ! , one idea is that if we can find a polynomial whose domaiin is [-1,1] and satisfy those conditions , then we can easily put the sin(t) instead of the variable x and we are done !
@amWhy , i had an account on it from months , it was the first time to visit an english site which is concerned with maths ! so i discovered that this site was for graduate students and they there tell me about maths.SE so i joined the site here !
Let $Y \subseteq \Bbb{P}^n$ and $Z \subseteq \Bbb{P}^m$ be two projective varieties. By $Y \times Z$, we really mean the image of $Y \times Z$ via the Segre embedding $\psi$ in $\Bbb{P}^N$ with $N = (n+1)(m+1) - 1$. We want to determine the $t$ -th graded piece of the coordinate ring of a product...
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez basically I ask this because I want to know why the hilbert polynomial of a product of projective varieties is the product of the hilbert polynomial of the individual varieties
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez ping me when you have had a look
I talked to my advisor yestterday and the only way he knows how to prove it is a method involving terms like "lines bundles, Kunneth formula and taking global sections"