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00:36
Peter Tan
 
1 hour later…
01:46
@Ethan I almost derped.
 
2 hours later…
03:52
Slowwwwwwww night..... yawn :-O
 
2 hours later…
05:40
EPIC RAP BATTLES: Qiaochu Vs. Bill Dubuque!
@skullpatrol "define define" was one of the best things I read in life.
Sometimes I read stuff in death, necromancer powers and stuff.
06:03
^_^ good morning !
06:21
Hello.
Whats up ?
Not much. just reading Derbyshire's unknown quantity.
Cool !
What time of the day is it in your country ?
cool !@
06:25
Why?
Just asked :)
WHAT ? :-D
Why ? :p
06:32
Dunno. I day that when there s nothing to say.
LOL.. to creep people out ? :-D
My reasons are a matter of secrecy.
I'm going, cya.
same here, cya
06:38
Hello
IS anyone one?
 
2 hours later…
08:42
hi
09:39
Is there a way to show the Hausdorff Dimension of the Cantor set is log2 / log 3 other than using the definition of the Hausdorff Dimension twice? I think I remember seeing someone obtain the answer without using the definition directly but using some measure theory.
09:57
Greetings
10:40
@robjohn are you around?
@Chris'swisesister yes
sorry, I was writing a reply to a comment.
10:58
Does someone have the mac lanes categories for working mathematicans in his near ?
ah nevermind i just switched the notation in my proof wrong :D
11:26
@robjohn sorry for delay (I didn't notice you answered me back - my sound was on mute). Are you now?
@robjohn could you take a look on it? imagebin.org/260789
@Chris'swisesister okay
@robjohn thanks!
@robjohn I think something is wrong there.
@robjohn my notations failed in some places.
At the beginning it's $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \int_a^{\infty} f_n= \int_a^{\infty} \lim_{n\to\infty}f_n= \int_a^{\infty}f$$
11:57
@Chris'swisesister It looks fine.
@robjohn thank you! :-)
 
1 hour later…
13:14
@TheSubstitute There is a über informal proof.
I ask myself if there is a nice, simple way to prove the convergence of $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k+n}}{k+n}$ and then extend the solution to the multiseries. (I'm not interested in computing its exact value)
@Chris'swisesister Well, the inner series converges by Leibnitz.
And it is a cut off sine.
@PeterTamaroff There must be some work on Leibniz's multiseries test but I didn't find it on google.
Rememeber $$\sum_{k\in\Bbb Z}\frac{(-1)^k}{a+k}=\frac{\pi}{\sin\pi a}$$
13:21
Also, $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{x+n}$$ converges uniformly over $\Bbb R_{\geq 0}$
13:37
@robjohn Are you here?
@BenjaLim yes
13:52
@robjohn I have posted a question on main.
@BenjaLim I have been told you have to be careful about what measure you use on $E$ and which on $f^{-1}(E)$.
The condition is that for every Borel measurable $E$, $f^{-1}(E)$ is Lebesgue measurable.
I am only talking of the Lebesgue measure
@BenjaLim Well, but the definition is that a function $f:\Bbb R\to\Bbb R$ is Lebesgue measurable if the preimage of a Borel measurable set is Lebsgue measurable. Ask Mariano if you'd like.
I don't know what you're talking about
@BenjaLim In your post you have a typo "$f:\Bbb R^d\to f$."
14:00
@PeterTamaroff well that is only half true. That is the usual definition of measurable on $\mathbb{R}^n$, or at least equivalent to the usual definitions. If you talk about arbitrary $\sigma$ algebras the definition that a function is measurable whenever the preimage of a measurable set is measurable
@DominicMichaelis I am talking about $\Bbb R^n$ in particular, that is my point.
In my lecture we defined that a function is measurable if for all $\alpha \in \mathbb{R}$ the set $$ \{ x \in \mathbb{R}^n : f(x)< \alpha \}$$ is measurable. This one is obviously equivalent to yours
@PeterTamaroff There there Pedro
15:27
@Chris'swisesister I posted a question at main about the Euler-Mascheroni constant:
$\gamma = \int_0^n \left(\int_k^{\infty } e^{a b} \, da\right) \, db-\int_k^{\infty } \left(\int_0^n e^{a b} \, da\right) \, db$
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/415491/is-this-euler-mascheroni-constant-calculation-from-double-integrals-a-true-ident
@MatsGranvik awesome question (+1) Where did you meet it?
@Chris'swisesister thanks
@Chris'swisesister It started with your suggestion to evaluate a similar triple integral at x=1/Exp[1], here in this chat room. I was away from my computer for two weeks though.
@MatsGranvik ah, I've just remembered it !
15:53
@MatsGranvik I like your researcher attitude of discovering math things, and in a way I do the same thing on my own (as an amateur), but you know, sometimes life gets in the way and I cannot attend long enough what I like. At any rate, my mind is full of ideas and I could write down things all day. :-)
Hello :)
I'm new here, could I ask math question in this room?
@Blackoffe Sure,.
@Chris'swisesister I do mathematics as an amateur as well. My day job is working in a chemical laboratory.
Well, I've been struggling with proving $V(0) = Spec(R)$, could somebody help me?
@Blackoffe Ugh, I don't know if I can help you there. Could you give me some background?
16:08
@MatsGranvik nice
Umm yeah, given V(0)=\{P \in Spec(R)| 0 \in P\} and $Spec(R)=\{I| I prime ideal of R\}$
@Blackoffe $V(0)=\{P\in{\operatorname{Spec}}(R)\; :\;0\in P\}$ and ${\operatorname{Spec}}(R)=\{ I\; :\; I\text{ is a prime ideal of } R\}$
That in ideal is prime means $ab\in I\implies a\in I \wedge b\in I$, yes?
Ok. So, suppose $I$ is a (prime) ideal. Is $0\in P$?
yes,,I can hardly prove if 0 is in any set in Spec(R)
16:12
You're defining an ideal by an additive subgroup such that $a\in R,b\in I\implies ab,ba\in I$, yes?
If it is an additive subgroup, it contains $0$.
yes,given $R$ is a ring
Or in a more silly fashion, $0\in R$,$a\in I$ so $a0=0\in I$.
=)
oh i see..
Are you sure this is the problem? Because it seems completely irrelevant that the ideals are prime. That's why I think I am missing something.
yeah i'm pretty confused too, but there's something that makes me think over my proof because of your statement just now :)
@PeterTamaroff thanks a lot, I found the proof (^_^)
16:38
is it true all perfect square trinomials will only intercept the x axis once? I just tried it with 3 and all of them only intercepted x axis once
ok nevermind ignore above]
16:59
@Blackoffe How does it go?
 
1 hour later…
17:59
@PeterTamaroff The $V(S)$ thing is more general though: it is defined as $V(S):=\{P:P\supseteq S\wedge P~\rm prime\}$. These are precisely the closed sets of ${\rm Spec}$.
(i.e. the Zariski topology). indeed computing V(0) is trivial though.
@anon Oh, OK...
 
1 hour later…
19:02
@PeterTamaroff @PeterTamaroff, what is it? Is there a link?
@TheSubstitute Well, look at it this way.
Take a square. If you triple it's side length, you get 9 copies, so its dimension is 2, since 3^2=9.
If you get a line and triple it, you get 3 copies, so it's dimension is 1, since 3^1=3.
If you get a cube and triple it's side length, you get 27 copies of itself.
So its dimension is 3, because 3^3=27.
Take now the Cantor set.
Say, over $[0,1]$. If you triple it, you get $[0,3]$. But by subtracting the middle third $[2,3]$ you now see there are two copies of the Cantor set.
So if $x$ is its dimension, $3^x=2$
Thus, $x=\log 2/\log 3$.
@PeterTamaroff, thank you! Is there a name for the type of dimension you are using?(box dimension?) When does that dimension agree with Hausdorff dimension?
19:24
@TheSubstitute Hmm... no idea!
Basically we kinda have a function $A$ that assigns a ¿size? $A(S)$ to a set $S$ and we we're looking at $A(\lambda S)=\lambda^{D(S)}A(S)$, right?
And we wanna call this $D(S)$ the dimension of $S$?
It is all too fishy to tell.
@PeterTamaroff, got it. Very helpful!
19:50
hello
can someone help me please
 
1 hour later…
20:57
what exactly does the number next to the triangle (near reputation) mean?
@exitingcorpse number of bronze badges
i just got one for reading the entire about page in search of what it meant
it's called "informed"
woooo irony
 
2 hours later…
22:46
if x is equal to √-16 , where exactly is that on the cartesian plane?
When I run that into calculator it gives back: 4 i
@JohnMerlino Ugh... better put it as $4i$.
This is the complex number $(0,4)$.
23:26
@JohnMerlino Since $(4i)^2=4i4i=16i^2=-16$, the calculator is right that one of the square roots of $-16$ is $4i$.
@user1 What's up, nerdizzle?
@PeterTamaroff You know, all sorts of things are up, and I am sure someone helped you determine those in the past.
@user1 Those?
@PeterTamaroff I suspect both the sky and a roof are over your head.
@user1 That is true.
They are complex structures.
Takes time to understand them.
23:32
@PeterTamaroff I guess it would not be worthwhile to get into an argument with KeyIdeas already here.
@user1 Not personal experience, but according to others, my only recommendation should be: RUN AS FAST AS YOU CAN, AND DON'T LOOK BACK!
@PeterTamaroff :)
@user1 I'm reading a proof of Cantor Berstein for the first time.
@PeterTamaroff I barely remember any proofs of it. Is it by contradiction?
@user1 Nope, it is an explicit construction of a bijection given two injections! =)
Not funny! Not funny!
23:42
@PeterTamaroff The proof that I am looking at now is not exactly an explicit construction, since it has one of those "without loss of generality" phrases.
@user1 Really?
WLOG is just fine. It is part of the proof.
If you prove it rigorously, I'm OK with it,.
@PeterTamaroff It does not explicitly construct it for all $A$ and $B$, though.
I am fine with the proof btw; I was still wrong with guessing that it is by contradiction.
When you have a common distribution function of two random variables, how can one immediately check if the random variables are independent or not?
@PeterTamaroff Actually, if $f:A\to B$ and $g:B\to A$ are injective and you construct $b:A\to g[B]$ bijective, then $g^{-1}\circ b:A\to B$ is bijective and explicitly constructed.
You are right. :)
@user1 Aha.
I think! =)
23:58
@PeterTamaroff Therefore, you are.
(not that I was worried about you being some bot)

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