In fact, I think what I have proven is:
Suppose $f:[a,b]\to\Bbb R$ is bounded and $\alpha:[a,b]\to\Bbb R$ admits a finite derivative $\alpha'$ over $(a,b)$. If $f\alpha'\in\mathscr R$ *then* $f\in{\mathscr R}(\alpha)$ *and* $$\int_a^b f\alpha' dx=\int_a^b fd\alpha$$