Sigh I still don't understand why the two notions of colimits are different. Directly gluing and adding a cylinder in between - what causes the difference in homotopy type?
again, if you are studying group quotients and you wwant to look at things up to homotopy, then your procedure for constructing quotients has to be homottopy invariant
When I was asking whether these homotopy limits/quotients can be made categorical, I mean in this sense (that they are limits/quotients in actual categories)
At first, I thought $\bigcup_{A\in\mathcal R}A\in\mathcal R$.
If $\mathcal R$ is countable, we can say that $\mathcal R$ is a $\sigma$-algebra, where $A^c=\left(\bigcup_{X\in\mathcal R}X\right)\mathinner\backslash A$.
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez I mean that the difference between $\sigma$-algebra and $\sigma$-ring is essential, not a business of changing the universe set.
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez I mean that the difference between $\sigma$-algebra and $\sigma$-ring is essential, not just a business of changing the universe set.
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez I mean that the difference between $\sigma$-algebra and $\sigma$-ring is essential, not a business of changing the universe set.
If there are any mods in the room, could they do something about Silent man posts? He keeps defacing his question and "rollback war is going on. @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez @robjohn
I have a question about Baby Rudin's proof about $\mathfrak M_F(\mu)$.
Suppose $A_n\in\mathfrak M_F(\mu)$ and $B\in\mathfrak M(\mu)$, and $A_n\cap B\in\mathfrak M(\mu)$, why can we conclude that $\mu^*(A_n\cap B)\le\mu^*(A_n)<+\infty$?
Well, I said Byron restated $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}f_n(x_n)=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}f_n\left(\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}x_n\right)$ when $\{f_n\}$ are equicontinuous at $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}x_n$ since mine was first :-)
Suppose $\mu^*$ is an outer measure of a regular, nonnegative, bounded function $\mu$, and $A_1\supset A_2\supset\dotsb$, $\bigcap_n A_n=0$. Is it true that $\mu^*(A_n)\to0$?
@DominicMichaelis (fraction of people who can understand that question)*(fraction of people who can understand the solutions)*(a score for posting the question/answer on a good time when most of the users are active)*(a score of wittiness/humor in the answer)*(how good is the question/answer)
@PeterTamaroff It goes back to my name tomorrow. My region is somewhat famous for exporting oranges from the country. So, it was for all the farmers in my region who produce oranges.
@OrangeHarvester hm, didn't hear about it. Now I'm thinking what to do, it's difficult to write large programs in Matlab for me (I don't like Matlab objects), so I'm looking where can I go without loss in easyness of programming mathematical stuff. What do you think?
Cython interfaces naturally with python, so no problems there.
@Nimza There is no technical argument as such. C++ is definitely more "industrious" though. Writing in C++ is somewhat more industrious than writing in python. If you want a parallel/distributed environment and your major focus is computation, then C++ should be your choice. If you major focus is not computation, and you are also interested in post-processing the results a lot, then python/cython development model is much more easier.
If you do decide to go with python, there is an Ohio Supercomputer Tutorial on Parallel Python. (Python with parallel is not as widely tested as c++, so there might be pitfalls.) In case, you decide to go with C++ and you have not yet picked up any specific library to use, I suggest a combination of DUNE/PetSc/Slepc for your computations. All three are excellent libraries.
I think, that C# better for such tasks. First - beautiful IDE support. Second - good memory management (not an ARC, but pretty good). Three - many libraries/wrappers for it. Forth - your code-debugging time tremendous decreased. Fifth - expressiveness more better than Java and readability more better than any dynamic-typed language. Sixth - it can be more faster sometimes than C++ (my friend have a problem with big data and pointers)
“Art begins with craft, and there is no art until craft has been mastered. You can’t create until you’re willing to subordinate the creative impulses to the constriction of a form.” Anthony Burgess
0# is the real number (read: set of integers) encoding all the truth of the inner model L. Since the truth is not definable (internally) the existence of this real number implies that L is not the whole universe of ZFC (i.e. V≠L). But it implies more actually, it means that there are some large cardinals in the background.
It tells us that L itself is small enough that we know almost everything possible, like we do if we have a set-model of ZFC inside the universe (we can say things, externally, about that model). 0† is similar, but for a generalized case. – Asaf Karagila 17 mins ago
gahwd
user19161
I saw the meta post about some answers being copied and modified from other users. I will do my own investigation...
@JacobBlack Okay. Have you noticed my new gravatar?
user19161
11:55
@OrangeHarvester Yes, I have. I am a little shocked by that meta post. I won't quote any details here, but you should know which I am referring to. I am just very shocked.
@Tobias In particular, every abelian group is sudokable, and the direct sum of two sudokable groups is again sudokable.
And I think sudokability behaves well under exact sequences: if this is true, then all solvable groups are sudokable!
And it will be the most interesting, if this turns out to be related to the realisation of groups as Galois groups over $Q$... It is nothing but a crazy idea, so let us laugh, haha