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09:51
@Jakobian you should continue posting your findings, I believe. Keep posting in the general topology chatroom atleast
Or like soumik said, a blog
 
2 hours later…
11:43
I have hard time understanding why loop based space $\Omega S^1$ is not path-connected.

Every element of the space starts and ends at $x_0$, and is determined by the winding number. But since the end-, and the start point are the same, how can it NOT be path connected?
what does a path in $\Omega S^1$ look like?
@Thorgott I am not entirely sure. Letting my imagination go wild, I want to say it is a continuous constant that starts and ends at the basepoint.
12:05
I don't know what a "continuous constant" is supposed to be
you have to unwind the definition
cause how can you form an opinion on whether a space is path-connected if you don't know the paths in it
Fair! By definition, a path in X, between any two points a,b is a continuous map f:[0,1] -> X s.t.
f(0)=a, f(1)=b.
What I was thinking earlier: Suppose a,b are two elements in $\Omega S^1$ with distinct winding numbers, and both a,b start and end at the same point $x_0$.

Define constant map $f:[0,1]\to \Omega S^1$, $f(t)=x_0$. Then there is path between a,b ?
13:00
$x_0$ is not a point in $\Omega S^1$
 
2 hours later…
14:36
@Thorgott Well isn't $\Omega S^1$ a based space? So can't I choose it to be based at $x_0$?
You can do that, at the risk of confusing yourself, which you already seem to be.
With the understanding that $x_0$ is some point of $\Omega S^1$, not some point of $S^1$.
You still have not unraveled what a path in $\Omega S^1$ is; do this.
14:57
@BenSteffan Thanks. So $\Omega S^1$ consists of loops based at some point $x_0$ - these are the points in $\Omega S^1$... I see now. So the path in the space must consist of series of loops of $\Omega S^1$, which are points in this space. There is no way to have a continuous path with such 'points'.
No, that's not correct. Try again.
@BenSteffan edited*
Better, but still imprecise. A path in $\Omega S^1$ is the same thing as a homotopy of based loops $I \times I \to S^1$.
@BenSteffan $I\times I$?
Do you prefer $S^1 \times I \to S^1$?
15:02
@BenSteffan Is it the same as $[0,1]\times I \to S^1$?
Well I'm still confused...
@flowian If you do not know that $I$ is standard AT notation for $[0, 1]$, then perhaps your time would be better served picking up a textbook
I would say that is standard notation even beyond AT
"A path is a homotopy between loops". So suppose $a,b$ are two loops with the same basepoint $x_0$ and distinct windings.
You are saying there is no homotopy from $a$ to $b$? Why wouldn't something like $a(1-t)+bt$, for $t\in[0,1]$.
think about what you're trying to do geometrically
you're drawing straight lines between points on the circle
15:07
yeah, so what is the codomain of your proposed homotopy
Now we're really straying into the territory of the absolute basics of AT.
Oh shoot you are absolutely right
the co-domain is $S^1$, so I need to think in terms of circles, or arcs.
@BenSteffan It's been over a year since I did AT. I'm aware of this notation just a bit rusty. Being an ass about it serves no purpose.
anyway, the point is the winding number is a homotopy invariant (this may be more or less obvious depending on how you prefer to define the winding number)
So, I can characterize $S^1$ with $e^{2\pi i t}$. Suppose I want to make path from element $\alpha$ with $a$ loops to element $\beta$ with $b$ loops, $a,b\in \Bbb N, \, a<b$, both based at $x_0\in S^1.$

I am thinking of homotopy like $e^{2i\pi a(1-t) + 2i\pi bt}$.
It is probably not precise. But is the idea drifting in correct direction?
@flowian Frankly they way you're writing suggests that you've never studied these things to any depth at all. I'm telling you that your time would be better served actually sitting down with a textbook and studying.
15:20
@BenSteffan Thank you
@flowian Case in point, the message that what you're trying to do here is impossible seems to have missed you, still.
No it has not missed me. I'm trying to understand why it is not possible by creating counterexamples that do not work...well my above counterexample may not be precise but I still do not have the intuition why it doesn't work.

You said the path in $\Omega S^1$ is the homotopy of based loops and that's what I tried to create, a path on $S^1$ between two loops
try examples like a = 0 and b = 1 or a = 1 and b = 2
@flowian You're asking why two loops on $S^1$ with different winding number are not homotopic, a question that texts computing $\pi_1 S^1$ usually discuss...
@leslietownes So I want to do something like $e^{2i\pi( t+ 2(1-t))}=e^{2i\pi(2-t)}$...can I get some hint?
15:35
it's hard to give a hint as to carrying out a procedure that provably cannot work
but I can take a guess at to what your intuition is missing
@Thorgott what it could be, please?
if you wanna write $a(t)=e^{2\pi i\alpha(t)}$, then $\alpha$ is not necessarily continuous
@Thorgott I don't quite follow. Any suggestions where I could read about this stuff?
I mean, if $a$ has two windings and $b$ has three, then I would want to do something like $e^{2i\pi(2(1-t)+3t)}$ to move from $a$ to $b$. Not sure why it wouldn't work?
that's a path, not a homotopy of paths
Ahh makes sense!
it's been a while
Thank you
@BenSteffan I'm sure it does, many questions that are asked here can be found in textbooks.
Also maybe you should consider getting teaching qualifications if you like giving out advice how others should spend their time studying maths
15:55
@flowian Oh, I will, I will.
yeah haha a lot of folks here have them (or probably would have them if they worked in places that required them)
I mean, teaching qualifications don't exist here, so to speak
getting into an academic career automatically qualifies you for teaching
same in the US at the university level
you usually need some kind of certification to mold young minds but the damage has been done by the time they get to college
...but I'm honored that you think I'd make a good teacher, despite you spending several hours this afternoon asking about something here you could have read up on in about ~10min in any standard text, against my advice.
@BenSteffan Yea with PhD...
@BenSteffan You being a good teacher is a questionable thing😅 I've never said this. I've spend maybe 30mins at most on this problem. Your comments just came out toxic.
But I'm sure you can be a good teacher!
16:08
@leslietownes it's a whole separate category of degree here, for school teaching. funnily enough they make them take some of the first-year math courses here, the math-ed students
and by "funnily enough" I mean "not funny at all:" that's just excessively cruel :^)
and mostly pointless
ben it's kind of interesting in the US school teaching is mostly regulated at the state level, with varying requirements depending on what state you get your job in (also, there are often exemptions and other loopholes). and private schools generally have less regulation than public
@BenSteffan Î had to do like a one-day course to get a qualification for being a Tutor the first time
its pretty common (outside of like MIT or wherever) for most of the math majors at a university to intend to be math teachers, and very ironically they are often the most hostile to what a mathematician would regard as 'actual' math instruction
@BenSteffan lol they have separate courses here
@Thorgott we have a course but it's optional
16:13
and usually the success of a program can be measured by how much they do not require prospective teachers to take "regular" math courses
like i am not actually that sure of the merits of the argument for making every potential middle school teacher learn real analysis, although that was definitely part of the math ed track at my undergrad
I think it's supposed to be mandatory here, but I know some people who avoided it
also due to bureaucratic covid complications
we generally treat tutoring as a bit of a "whatever" job
will it be a lot of work? will it be very little work? will the lecturer provide you with solutions to the exercises? will you have to do all the exercises on your own?
"who knows lol"
yeah, same here
we were supposed to track our hours as Tutors, but I think everybody just made their hour charts up
cause no way you spend like 6 hours in a week grading hw towards the end of the semester
that kind of stuff is often barely a job in the US
@Thorgott ah yes, that
16:21
i knew someone who listed what were nominally teaching jobs as part of his financial support (i.e. grants etc) in a CV, which seems like a faux pas at a minimum, but pretty spot on in terms of what the "job" was
at my last academic job i had a TA assigned to me who was worse than useless, he just confused students and told them wrong things that i had to correct, and when i complained the department told me that the "job" was part of his aid package and was not negotiable
so i told him to just stay home and not talk to my students for the rest of the semester
@Thorgott I'm technically getting a sweet deal this term: because they had so many students and still decided to do oral exams they ended the course a week early so they start with examinations, plus since its oral exams I won't be involved with exams at all
in particular I will be paid a regular 7h a week this month when I've worked a literal 0h
ben were you my TA
haha
Joe
Joe
16:45
Given a topological space $X$, we can define the category $\operatorname{Ouv}_X$ of open sets of $X$, with the morphisms simply being inclusions $U\hookrightarrow V$. We can then define a presheaf $\mathcal F$ on $X$ with values in $\mathcal C$ as simply being a contravariant functor from $\operatorname{Ouv}_X$ to $\mathcal C$.
My question is: is there a particular reason why we want this functor to be contravariant? Couldn't we just define a presheaf to be a (covariant) functor $\operatorname{Ouv}_X\to\mathcal C$?
16:56
@Joe Consider the (pre)sheaf F that assigns to each open set U, the ring of continuous functions from U to R. Now if you have a inclusion of open subsets U \subseteq V then you have a morphism in the opposite direction F(V)->F(U) that is just the restriction homomorphism. Taking values in an arbitrary category instead of rings generalizes this idea.
17:06
Consider $[a,b]\subset\mathbb R$. Don't you think it is strange that if $f^3$ is Riemann integrable, then so is $f$, whereas if $f^2$ is Riemann integrable, it doesn't follow that $f$ is? I think it is strange, because if I recall correctly, $L^p(\mu)\subset L^1(\mu)$ for a finite measure $\mu$ and $p>1$ and the Lebesgue integral coincides with the Riemann integral on $[a,b]$.
psie i am not sure it is helpful to think too long about this stuff but squaring destroys sign information, and riemann integration is very sensitive to sign stuff even on sets of measure zero. think of e.g. the indicator function of Q, minus 1/2.
at a super vague level, it is not that weird to me that something that destroys sign stuff might change integrability more than something that does not.
@Joe it's the variance that you see in most of the natural examples, both geometrically (as in Soumik's comment) and algebraically (see Yoneda lemma) speaking
also as a side note, the riemann integral being sensitive to stuff happening even on a set of measure zero is a strong signal that riemann integrability might not be that useful of a threshold for thinking about stuff.
ok, I will not dwell on this too long :)
the riemann integral is certainly helpful when it makes sense because it links integration to something extremely intuitive, and it is rewarding when our intuitive thing coincides with the thing we are doing. but maybe also the riemann integral is not what anybody should be thinking of as 'the' integral
psie at a really vague level squaring on R is not one-to-one but cubing is, one thing 'destroys' 'information' and the other doesn't
thats the model in my head anyway
17:16
"What's geometry? It's when the functors are contravariant." :)
except when we have duality
duality is something that translates contravariant geometry into covariant geometry
@leslietownes Ok 👍 did you ever do some numerical integration, out of curiosity? I think the Lebesgue integral has very little meaning there, but I may be mistaken.
"covariant geometry" you mean algebra? :^)
psie i do not think anyone would be doing numerical integration on something that is not riemann integrable. i do not think the outer limits of lebesgue integrability are at all relevant to anything. which sometimes makes me question the questions you ask on here if i am being honest :)
in my own mind, the point of the lebesgue integral is that it's a well behaved mathematical object that lets you identify something that you can later prove is riemann integrable
sheaf cohomology vs cosheaf homology, the algebra always wins
17:20
but i'm a crank, nobody should listen to me
but I'm a crank, I'm a weirdo
what the hell am I doing here, I don't belong here :(
4
to be clear i'm not saying that the riemann integral or its intuitive interpretations are useless. i'm saying that it's not useful to focus on the technical criteria for riemann integrability
@Thorgott Chain complexes and cochain mplexes
17:38
Any ideas here? I want to show for $X$ a real-valued random variable with right-continuous CDF $F_X(x) = P(X \le x)$ satisfies:
$$P(F_X(X) \le \alpha) \le \alpha$$ I am trying to prove it using the quantile function but I'm getting a bit confused as it is bounded below by $\alpha$
My attempt was to show the event $\{F_X(X) \le \alpha\} \subseteq $ an appropriate set including a quantile function ideally $\{X \le Q^+(\alpha)\}$ where $Q^+(\alpha) = \sup\{x : P(X < x) \le \alpha\}$ but I can't justify it...
@AlessandroCodenotti lol
This seems quite helpful: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3763458/… but I still struggle to justify an appropriate bound
pie
pie
18:18
I noticed that any inequity that involve $ab+bc+ac=1$ and the question is to prove that $\sum\limits_{cyc}\frac{\sqrt{f(a,b,c)}}{g(a,b,c)}\ge \sum\limits_{cyc}\frac{\sqrt{f(0,1,1)}}{g(1,1,1)} $ has never been answered on MSE (without using mathematica ) these question seem to be difficult but I wonder if there is some unified approach that can solve all of these problems since $(0,1,1)$ is always the minimum
[Minimizing $ \sum\limits_{cyc}\frac{\sqrt{5a+8bc}}{8a+5bc}$ with $ \sum\limits_{cyc}ab=1$](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4802066/minimizing-sum-limits-cyc-frac-sqrt5a8bc8a5bc-with-sum-limits)


[If $ab+bc+ca=1,$ prove that $\frac{\sqrt{5a+4}}{a+bc}+\frac{\sqrt{5b+4}}{b+ca}+\frac{\sqrt{5c+4}}{c+ab}\ge 8.$](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4790340/if-abbcca-1-prove-that-frac-sqrt5a4abc-frac-sqrt5b4bca?noredirect=1&lq=1)


[If $ab+bc+ca=1,$ prove $\frac{\sqrt{a+1}}{a+bc}+\frac{\sqrt{b+1}}{b+ca}+\frac{\sqrt{c+1}}{c+ab}\ge 1+2\sqrt{2}.$](https://math.stackexchange.com/questio
I think there must be some general theorem that grantees the minimum is always at (0,1,1) when $f (a,b,c)=x_1a+y_1bc +z_1$ for all $x,y,z>0$ and $g(a,b,c)=x_2a+y_2bc +z_2$
18:33
@psie I don't find it strange at all. Cubing is injective and continuous, squaring is not. You kind of expect injective functions to preserve structures better than non-injective functions.
even if you do like an abstract sigma algebra setup for your integration, if E is not in that sigma algebra, (1_E - 1/2)^2 will be measurable although 1_E - 1/2 will not
 
3 hours later…
21:46
Is there a connection between a Lie derivative and a Material derivative? The second one being: ${\displaystyle {\frac {\mathrm {D} y}{\mathrm {D} t}}\equiv {\frac {\partial y}{\partial t}}+\mathbf {u} \cdot \nabla y,}$ ?

As I understand the two coincide when $y$ is a scalar function. Is that true?
What about if $y$ becomes a vector field?

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