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04:38
Hi everyone. Does anyone know which SE site is best suited for illusions (visual, auditory, etc) ?
05:27
soham: psychology & neuroscience has an optical-illusions tag, psychology.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/optical-illusion although i can imagine questions about illusions that might not be a good fit for the description of that tag
@psie spaces with this property are called exhaustible by compact sets
names - very important
that sounds a bit crazy if you understand it wrong, but hear me out
if you know names, you can search for it
you can remember it better as well
your brain creates a separate container with a label that is the name
and your brain, like a computer searching for a file, doesn't go out of description alone to search for it, but searches for the name and then finds related stuff
well it doesn't actually create any labels as far as I know how brains work by being a human being
but just the fact that brain has ability to relate things to each other (via connections in your brain) does the job
no one needed me TED-talking (Ted talking, heh), but here you go. A speech for the audience that no one needs, for people who don't care about it, for a topic that everyone thinks is obvious enough that it goes without saying
and no one asked for
05:45
This is a new variant of TED talking, this is TED chatting
 
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07:54
@leslietownes thanks for the link :)
 
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09:48
the viewpoint of a field over a subfield as a vector space is more strong than i thought
@Jakobian cool :) I'll remember this name. I agree, it's great when things have a name.
10:37
> Theorem Let $p\in[1,\infty)$.
> (1) If $(E,\mathcal A,\mu)$ is a measure space, the set of all integrable simple functions is dense in $L^p(E,\mathcal A,\mu)$.
> (2) If $(E,d)$ is a metric space and $\mu$ satisfies $\mu(A)=\inf\{\mu(U):U\text{ open},A\subset U\}$ for every $A\in\mathcal B(E)$, then the set of all bounded Lipschitz functions that belong to $L^p(E,\mathcal B(E),\mu)$ are dense in $L^p(E,\mathcal B(E),\mu)$.
> (3) If $(E,d)$ is a separable locally compact metric space, and $\mu$ is finite on compact subsets of $E$, then the set of all Lipschitz functions with compact support is dense $L^p(E,\mathcal B(E),\mu)$.
> Consequences The space $C_c(\mathbb R^d)$ of all continuous functions with compact support on $\mathbb R^d$ is dense in $L^p(\mathbb R^d,\mathcal B(\mathbb R^d),\lambda)$, where $\lambda$ is Lebesgue measure.
I wonder; my guess is that the consequence must follow from (3), but $\sqrt{x}$ on $[0,1]$ is continuous with compact support but not Lipschitz, right? I'm confused.
11:16
I got muddled up. The Lipschitz functions with compact support, which are dense, is a subset of the continuous functions with compact support.
Bml
Bml
12:01
@leslietownes Thank you. Isn't there a more explicit proof?
@Jakobian Thank you.
12:27
@Jakobian personally what sticks with me is what I think will be important, or what I find "neat". It could be that I read something rly boring, Ill forget it very easily; but when it gets applied somewhere else (somewhere more interesting) and I read it again from a different context, it sticks way easier and more concretely
12:53
memory is the residue of thought
and meaning is what you should think about
13:12
@handan_toddler why?
why what?
13:32
@handan_toddler why one should think about meaning?
It is easier to remember.
14:18
because there is more to think about
14:36
i see
@VladimirLysikov I'm doing it a different way now - the usual $f(x) = f(y) \implies x = y \implies$ injective
So I think "Let $u \otimes \varphi(v) = z \otimes \varphi(w)$. We need to show $u \otimes v = z \otimes w$" should be enough
 
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17:09
@ILikeMathematics Even in this case, you need to consider arbitrary $x$ and $y$, and not only $x = u \otimes v$ and $y = z \otimes w$
Here is an example of what you need to worry about:
Take an $n$-dimensional vector space $V$ with a basis $e_i$, consider the dual basis $e_i^*$ in $V^*$, and define a tensor $I = \sum_{i = 1}^n e_i \otimes e_i^*$.
Consider a map $\psi \colon V \otimes V^* \to V \otimes V^*$ given by $\psi(v \otimes y) = v \otimes y - \frac{1}{n}y(v)\cdot I$
It is not injective: one can check that $\psi(I) = 0$.
But if $n \geq 3$, then it is true that $\psi(u \otimes x) = \psi(v \otimes y) \Rightarrow u \otimes x = v \otimes v$
18:14
In the Riemann-Lebesgue lemma, the author says it suffices to prove $$\hat{f}(\xi)\underset{|\xi|\to\infty}{\to}0$$for step functions on $\mathbb R$ (simple functions where the sets are intervals). This is because the step functions are dense in $L^1(\mathbb R,\mathcal B(\mathbb R),\lambda)$ and so let $(\varphi_n)$ be a sequence of step functions that approximate $f$ in the $L^1$ norm.
Then \begin{align*}\sup_{\xi\in\mathbb R}|\hat{f}(\xi)-\hat{\varphi}_n(\xi)|&=\sup_{\xi\in\mathbb R}\left|\int f(x)e^{\mathrm{i}x\xi}\,\mathrm{d}x-\int \varphi_n(x)e^{\mathrm{i}x\xi}\,\mathrm{d}x\right|\\ &\leq\|f-\varphi_n\|_1\end{align*}
I don't understand what this inequality shows. That $(\hat{\varphi}_n)$ converges uniformly to $\hat{f}$? What is the justification for proving the lemma for step functions only?
@VladimirLysikov Ah, you're right
Thanks
@psie continuity of the Fourier transform as a function from $L^1$ to $L^\infty$
@Jakobian ok, hmm. I have to give this some thought.
18:36
Let's refer to the condition as being in $C_\infty$
(the Fourier transform is in $C_\infty$)
once you show that $C_\infty$ is closed in $L^\infty$, you are done
@Jakobian why is it a function to $L^\infty$ though? The expression $\sup_{\xi\in\mathbb R}|\hat{f}(\xi)-\hat{\varphi}_n(\xi)|$ is the sup-norm, which is not the same as the $L^\infty$ norm. The inequality reminds of a sort of Lipschitz condition.
it's the same once you know that Fourier transform is continuous
ah ok, then we're good, I think I know that the Fourier transform is continuous :)
let me correct myself
it's the same once you know that if $f\in L^1$ then $\hat f\in C$
18:53
The inequality seems to be a very concise way of proving the lemma. I think there are a few key steps that have simply been omitted :(
left to the reader
:(
I understand almost uniform convergence is equivalent to convergence in $L^\infty$, and that is what the inequality shows; $(\hat{\varphi}_n)$ converges in $L^\infty$ to $\hat{f}$. But I don't see how this proves the lemma.
$\hat \varphi_n$ vanishes at infinity right?
for each $n$
@SineoftheTime yup, it has compact support for each $n$.
so also $\hat f$ vanishes
19:04
I am triggered by this terminology
@SineoftheTime why is compact support preserved under uniform convergence?
@SoumikMukherjee lol I've never heard of that
@SineoftheTime actually, it is $\varphi_n$ that has compact support for each $n$. I'm not sure about $\hat \varphi_n$.
well, actually I am
that's the point of the proof
we show $\hat \varphi_n$ vanishes at infinity only
19:20
Again, I will repeat myself
If $\hat\varphi_n\to \hat f$ in $L^\infty$ and $\hat\varphi_n\in C_\infty$ then $\hat f\in C_\infty$
in other words, $C_\infty$ is closed in $L^\infty$
well... not in other words
what you want to use is that $C_\infty$ is closed
so one has to show that $C_\infty$ is closed (and that it is a subset of $L^\infty$)
20:06
Let $\beta: V \times V \to K$ be a bilinear form. Then if $1 + 1 \neq 0$ in $K$ and $\beta$ is symmetric, there exists an orthogonal basis of $V$. Why do we need $\beta$ to be symmetric? Assume $\beta$ is not symmetric and $1 + 1 \neq 0$, can't we pick an arbitrary basis of $V$ and apply Gram-Schmidt?
In Gram-Schmidt there can be problems with denominators.
For example, for any antisymmetric form $\beta$ we have $\beta(x, x) = 0$ and this messes with Gram-Schmidt
And indeed antisymmetric forms do not have orthogonal bases, we introduce symplectic bases for them
Also, the notion of orthogonality is only nice when it is a symmetric relation, that is, $\beta(x,y) = 0 \Leftrightarrow \beta(y, x) = 0$, so not for arbitrary forms
20:58
@Jakobian do you have a hint how to show $C_\infty\subset L^\infty$ and $C_\infty$ being closed?
what is $C_{\infty}$?
good question, because I'm not so sure myself, it was never really defined explicitly, only stated in words. I think it is the space of all Fourier transforms vanishing at infinity. Like Jakobian said, if $\hat\varphi_n\to \hat f$ in $L^\infty$ and $\hat\varphi_n\in C_\infty$ then $\hat f\in C_\infty$. The logic of this makes sense, but only if $C_\infty\subset L^\infty$ is closed.
here $\hat\varphi_n$ is the Fourier transform of a step function
21:17
@psie you only really need to observe that you can replace the sup by a limsup as $\xi\rightarrow\pm\infty$ on the LHS
@psie continuous functions which vanish at infinity
that is, for any $\varepsilon > 0$ there exists a compact set $K$ such that $|f(x)| \leq \varepsilon$ for $x\notin K$
equivalently, in this context, $\lim_{|\xi|\to \infty} f(\xi) = 0$
To show that $C_\infty$ is closed, one needs to take $g_n\in C_\infty$ with $g_n\to g$
@Thorgott I'm thinking (to show an arbitrary Fourier transform vanishes at infinity given we know that the Fourier transform of a step function vanishes at infinity plus that inequality), we bound $\|\hat f(\xi)\|_\infty\leq \|\hat f(\xi)-\hat\varphi_n(\xi)\|_\infty+\|\hat\varphi_n(\xi)\|_\infty,$, though I'm not sure what happens with the term $\|\hat\varphi_n(\xi)\|_\infty$
while proving that it's closed, preferably don't use any previous notation, the hats and Fourier transform merely obscure the picture
you do know what happens with that term
it's the very premise of your original question
either way, one can fix find $n$ such that $\|g_n-g\|\leq\varepsilon$
we have $\|g\|\leq \|g_n\|+\|g_n-g\|$
now you can find a compact set $K$ such that $|g_n(x)|\leq\varepsilon$ for $x\notin K$
and so on. I won't complete the argument, I guess I already said a lot
there is no difference from any analysis argument whatsoever
21:36
Ok, thank you!
 
2 hours later…
23:59
(sorry, misclick)

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