At propositional calculus, if L is a language with $|L| = k$ and $(\psi_0, \dots, \psi_{l-1})$ is a sequence of sentences s.t for each $i < l-1$ we have $\psi_i$ tautologically implies $\psi_{i+1}$ but not the conserve. What is the maximum $l$?
I figured it is possible with exactly $k$ sentences but I'm not sure how to prove it is the maximum length.
*I probably might be unclear because I lack of the correct terms (I translated that question) so I'd like to clarify if needed
Define the equivalence relation $x\sim y$ on $[0,1)$ iff $x-y$ is rational and let $N$ be the subset of $[0,1)$ that consists of a member of each equivalence class. If we also define $R=[-1,1]\cap\mathbb Q$, is it true that $[0,1)\subset\bigcup_{r\in R} (N+r)$?
I think I've figured it out. If $x\in[0,1)$ is rational or irrational and it happens to be the chosen representative in $N$, then clearly it is in $N+0$ and hence in the union. Otherwise, if $x\in [0,1)$ is rational or irrational and belongs to $[y]$ (i.e. the representative is $y$), then it belongs to $N+(x-y)$. And $(x-y)\in [-1,1]\cap\mathbb Q$. Bingo.
Follow-up question. If $N$ is as before and we consider $E\subset N$, and we let $t\in (E+r)\cap(E+s)$, where $r,s\in \mathbb Q\cap[0,1)$. Then $t-s,t-r\in E\subset N$, but is $t-s=t-r$?
Certainly $t-r=(t-s)+(s-r)$ and $s-r\in\mathbb Q$, so $t-r\sim t-s$, but are they equal?
Ah, ok. Indeed, $t-s=t-r$, since they both belong $N$ and the same equivalence class, and since $N$ consists only of one member of each equivalence class, ... ! Bingo.
I can solve part (a) but I can't really figure out how to make use of the hint in part (b). How do I even find the value of that function on the boundary? I tried to put $z=Re^{i\theta}$ and take one $R$ out but that didn't do much. Can someone help me out?
> Exercise Let $f:[0,1]\to[0,1]$ be the Cantor function, and let $g(x)=f(x)+x$. Show that $g$ is a bijection from $[0,1]$ to $[0,2]$, and $h=g^{-1}$ is continuous from $[0,2]$ to $[0,1]$.
Attempt If $x,y\in[0,1]$ and $x<y$, then $g(x)=f(x)+x\leq f(y)+x<f(y)+y=g(y)$ and hence $g$ is injective. Furthermore, $g$ is continuous. By the intermediate value theorem, we see that $g$ takes on all values between $g(0)=0+0=0$ and $g(1)=1+1=2$. Hence $g$ is surjective.
Regarding $h=g^{-1}$ being continuous, we show $g$ is an open map. Let $I=(a, b)$ be an open interval contained in $[0,1]$. It follows from $g$ strictly increasing and the intermediate value theorem that $g((a, b))=(g(a), g(b))$. Here is where I'd like to conclude; since any open subset of $[0,1]$ is the union of intervals, it follows that $g$ is an open map.
Question Is the last statement true and how can I specify the intervals more explicitly?
yes, it is true that any open subset of $[0,1]$ is a union of intervals. of course, you can also have intervals containing an endpoint $0$ or $1$, but the conclusion is similar for those.
and I don't know what specification of an interval you imagine that is more explicit than giving its endpoints
@Thorgott ok, thanks. So the open subsets of $[0,1]$ are unions of intervals of the form $(a,b)\subset[0,1]$ and $(a,1]\subset[0,1]$ and $[0,b)\subset[0,1]$. I'll try to bake them in somehow.
Let $X,Y$ be compact connected manifolds and $\varphi\colon\pi_1(X)\to\pi_1(Y)$ be a homomorphism between their fundamental groups. Under what conditions on $X$, $Y$ and $\varphi$ is it true that $\varphi$ is the homomorphism induced by an appropriate continuous map $f\colon X\to Y$?
There's a cool recipe for how you could theoretically come up with examples here, but even in simple cases, it's too annoying
like, I wanted to start with the $2$-complex given by attaching a $2$-cell to $S^1$ via a degree $3$ map and then attach a $3$-cell that messes up your ability to realize the non-trivial automorphism of $\mathbb{Z}/3\mathbb{Z}$, but I couldn't carry it out
$\pi_2$ of that $2$-complex should be $\mathbb{Z}^2$, but to be honest, I cannot see the generators explicitly
my immediate idea would be to consider maps of lens space $L(p, q) \to L(p, q')$ and hope that a map inducing an iso. on $\pi_1$ must already be a homotopy equivalence, but this is probably naive
> ...$f+g$ is the composition of the two functions $x\mapsto (f(x),g(x))$ and $(a,b)\mapsto a+b$ which are both measurable (the second one because it is continuous, using also the equality $\mathcal B(\mathbb R)\otimes \mathcal B(\mathbb R)=\mathcal B(\mathbb R^2)$).
What do they mean by "using also the equality $\mathcal B(\mathbb R)\otimes \mathcal B(\mathbb R)=\mathcal B(\mathbb R^2)$?" Where exactly is it used? I understand why $x\mapsto (f(x),g(x))$ is measurable and why $(a,b)\mapsto a+b$ is continuous, but I don't see what it has to do with $\mathcal B(\mathbb R)\otimes \mathcal B(\mathbb R)=\mathcal B(\mathbb R^2)$.
the theorem is that if $f_i:(X, \mathcal{A})\to (Y_i, \mathcal{B}_i)$ are measurable then so is $f = (f_1, f_2):(X, \mathcal{A})\to (Y_1\times Y_2, \mathcal{B}_1\otimes \mathcal{B}_2)$
so with products you take product sigma-algebra
but continuity $f:X\to Y$ allows you to say its $f:(X, \mathcal{B}(X))\to (Y, \mathcal{B}(Y))$ measurable
so for continuity you take Borel sigma-algebras
so now in the domain of addition, and codomain of $x\mapsto (f(x), g(x))$ you have different sigma-algebras
I'm working on the conformal invariance theorem for planar Brownian motion. I want to prove the following statement:
Let $D\subset \mathbb{C}$ be a domain and $f:D\rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ a non-constant holomorphic map. Let $z\in D$ and $B$ be a planar Brownian motion starting from $z$, then $t\...