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00:00
Serre's thesis is one of the most important papers in algebraic topology
I know like 100 math history names, while the laymen only knows "Einstein"
Yeah, bro is overrated
even funnier, pretty much directly after his thesis Serre pivoted hard into algebra & algebraic geometry and became one of the leading mathematicians of that field instead
he single-handedly revolutionized algebraic topology and then said to himself "yeah that's enough" and went to help revolutionize algebraic geometry instead
Serre was a real cerebrate
Serre is still alive, to the best of my knowledge
00:02
O__O thx I didn't know
Dang! Does he still do math?
not sure, probably not much if any
guy's 98
He did all the math already
pretty much
Mathematicians live to be 100 sometimes, that's good news for us, friends
Vietoris published his last paper at the age of 103
00:05
!!!
in his twin prime
he died at 110 and is to this day the oldest verified austrian man to ever live
Well, once you crack cohomology, you pretty much are a genius about your health I guess
@BenSteffan built different fr fr
the most incredible part is that he was still skiing well into his 90s
Anyone uses Python for math projects, I wrote a MathJax formula parser that knows around 30% of the language on the KaTeX support page (KaTeX == MathJax for this purpose); I'm using KaTeX since quiver app is using it. Anyway, if you were wondering how to parse this complicated language I can help you. (used Lark parser-gen library).
I say 30% because there are a lot of features I didn't implement on purpose, for simplicity, and they are rarely seen operators etc.
So for example if you need to find all the variables in a formula or conver the formula to a variable-substitution-matching Regex, it's doable.
It's private code, so you'd have to ping me here.
 
3 hours later…
02:52
MathJax is not that complicated to parse?
 
2 hours later…
04:47
@copper.hat I hope you're joking
My grammar is over 300 lines and that's just for 25% of it
Also, please define what would instead be hard to parse
That's just a single section covering some of the operators found in KaTeX
There's also the standard form Lark transformer and the variable subst one that have to be written
Or else the UX would be too buggy
But nevermind, I guess what I'm doing is nothing
$\varnothing$
If MathJax is so easy to parse, where the hell does there already exist a parser that does what I need it to?
You're telling me that's easy to write a flawless parser for?
Maybe if you're on meth, but you'd be dead in a week from exhaustion
You sound like a layman, so I'm done with this. Oh yeah, the twin prime conjecture is obvious, it doesn't even need a proof, right? Because you're a layman it's obvious...
05:48
@IThinkHighlyOfEiligh I think you need to chill a little.
too subtle for me
06:55
:-) i seem to have a knack for triggering folks.
@Thorgott what makes a scheme well behaved?
mother
any source of strong discipline, really
Why Dummit n Foote massive, but herstein smol
@nickbros123 number of authors. 2>1
07:09
always wanted to submit a spoof article with the authors Dunning & Kruger
@nickbros123 why not write Herstein with a capital H?
when i think of algebra, i am reminded of AE Housman's quote "Perfect understanding will sometimes almost extinguish pleasure."
07:33
@SoumikMukherjee cuz:
07:48
I See, anti-capitalism✊🏼
3
just i.n. case
e. e. cummings
08:03
my memory is truly awful, we used to get slapped if we couldn't recite in elementary school. i developed a deep dislike of poetry as a result.
one of those teachers was Cillian Murphy's (the actor) grandfather.
08:15
yup, rote memorization was standard practice back in the day
it is also partly why i don't speak my supposedly native language.
i'm stuck trying to understand a straightforward combinatorics answer. its driving me crazy.
good night
 
1 hour later…
09:21
theres the following question: are there non empty metric spaces such that, for every possible superspace, it is open relative to that superspace
here superspace as in, we "identify" the space as living in the superspaces? like R kinda lives in C, we can make C kinda live in something bigger, maybe a larger set whose subset is C
i suppose we can just keep going like that, no?
and I suppose the larger metric must be so that it must restrict to what ever metric is in our initial set
09:35
@nickbros123 what if you begin with a complete metric space?
that guarantees closed ness not open ness, i suppose
So if you require it to be open as well then that makes the superspace disconnected
which superspace, though
The superspace that is the completion of any superspace you're having your metric space in
I can always make a bigger superspace, no? The question alludes to having some property being true for every superspace
09:52
So this doesn't hold for connected metric spaces
10:18
Let $F:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ be increasing. Denote by $F(x+)$ the right-hand limit. It seems obvious, but how can I show $G(x)=F(x+)$ is right-continuous? We have $$\lim_{x\to c^+}G(x)=\lim_{x\to c^+}\lim_{t\to x^+}F(t).$$I'm not really sure where to go next.
10:39
The definition of right-continuous is $F(a)=F(a+)$ for all $a\in \mathbb R$. So...ehm...I guess $G$ is the definition of a right-continuous function.
11:05
Another basic question. The sets $E_r=(x,x+r]\subset\mathbb R$, do they "shrink nicely" to $x$? According to the definition of "shrink nicely", they have to
1) $E_r\subset B(r,x)$ for each $r$,
2) there is a constant $\alpha>0$, independent of $r$, such that $m(E_r)>\alpha m(B(r,x))$.
But $E_r$ is not a subset of $B(r,x)=(x-r,x+r)$, or?
11:19
@SoumikMukherjee in this context, well-behaved should mean locally noetherian
the case of non-locally noetherian schemes becomes a bit more complicated
an $A$-module $M$ canonically induces a sheaf $\tilde{M}$ on $\mathrm{Spec}(A)$ given on basic opens by $\tilde{M}(D(f))=M_f$
this is the local model for a quasi-coherent module on a general scheme
now in the case of locally noetherian schemes, this is the local model for a coherent sheaf if we additionally assume that $M$ is finitely presented (equivalently, finitely generated)
in the non-locally noetherian case, coherence is not quite the natural generalization of being finitely presented and/or being finitely generated, but I think the locally noetherian case is all you need for intuition
and, in general, the reason coherence is sometimes preferred over the alternative of being locally of finite presentation is that it always yields an abelian category, which the latter doesn't
@nickbros123 is $X\times \{0\}$ open in $X\times [0, 1]$
It isn't
So the answer is "no"
@psie it is indeed not
@psie huh?
@psie I feel like here it'd be easier to prove this by an epsilon-delta argument
11:51
@Jakobian how? $x$ is not really a point, only $c$ is. I can only state some definitions. Given $\epsilon>0$, we want to show there exists $\delta>0$ such that $0<x-c<\delta\implies G(x)-G(c)<\epsilon$ (I've already shown to myself it is increasing, so we can remove the absolute value signs). We have $G(x)=F(x+)$, so there exists $\delta'>0$ such that $0<t-x<\delta'\implies F(t)-F(x)<\epsilon'$.
@Thorgott that's strange, as it is claimed to be in the proof of Theorem 3.23 in Folland. Perhaps I'm interpreting the definition of "shrink nicely" incorrectly? Maybe the $x$ in $E_r=(x,x+r]$ doesn't have to be the same as the center of the ball it should be contained in.
no, it's just a minor inaccuracy
@psie look at what you wrote and write it again
@Jakobian everything or just some parts of it?
Some parts. Last one
Hmm.
12:05
It'd be great to put some quantifiers in too
@Thorgott thanks a lot, I need sometime to understand everything that you wrote
12:25
@Jakobian Here's a new formulation. We want to show $G(a)=G(a+)$ for all $a\in\mathbb R$. This is the same as $F(a+)=G(a+)$ for all $a\in\mathbb R$ by definition of $G$. Now, $F(a+)$ means $\forall \epsilon_1>0$, $\exists \delta_1>0$ such that $0<x-a<\delta_1\implies F(x)-F(a)<\epsilon_1$ and likewise we have $0<x-a<\delta_2\implies G(x)-G(a)<\epsilon_2$.
This is where I'm stuck. I'm tempted to write $G(x)-G(a)$ in terms of right-hand limits of $F(t)$ as $t\to x^+$ and $t\to a^+$, but that doesn't lead anywhere.
@psie after you wrote "$F(a+)$ means..." I got lost
it surely should look different
in particular there shouldn't be any $G(a)$ or $F(a)$
ok, let me try again, I think I understand
yeah $F(a+)$ by itself means nothing :)
No it does mean something, it means a certain number
but you didn't write the definition of that number correctly
12:42
@Jakobian ok, so just change the occurrences of $F(a),G(a)$ to $F(a+),G(a+)$ above. In particular, we have $G(x)-G(a+)<\epsilon_2$. And now $G(x)=\lim_{t\to x^+}F(t)$, and so here somehow I'd like to argue that for $t$ close enough to $x$ (from above), $F(t)-G(a+)<\epsilon_2$ too. I don't know what to conclude here though.
@psie sure, but I'd still like there to be some sort of absolute value on the right side of implication
What is the function here that we apply the implicit function theorem on? It should go from an open in $\mathbb R^3$ to $\mathbb R^2$ I believe
Initially all we have is a parametrization $r(s,t)=X_1(s,t)e_1+X_2(s,t)e_2+X_3(s,t)e_3$
or, at least, some kind of $0\leq ...$
we have $|G(a+)-G(a)|\leq |G(a+)-G(x)| + |G(x)-G(a)|$ where $0 < x-a < \delta_2$
Or maybe it should start from an open in $\mathbb R^4$, since we get two balls of dimension 2
now the first term can get as small as we want, so the second term, $|G(x)-G(a)|$ is to be made as small as possible
12:48
oh I see I think
and for that we recall the definition: $G(x) = F(x+)$ and $G(a) = F(a+)$
$(s,t,x_1,x_2,x_3)\mapsto (x_1-X_1(s,t),x_2-X_2(s,t),x_3-X_3(s,t))$ probably
@Jakobian indeed, but if we write out the definition, we have two limits tending to two different points
I guess you can always choose $x$ to be a continuity point of $F$, so that $G(x) = F(x)$
so you have $|F(a+)-F(x)|$
so you just need $0 < x-a < \min(\delta_1, \delta_2)$ and $x$ is a continuity point of $F$
ok
12:52
then $|G(a+)-G(a)|\leq 2\varepsilon$, and since $\varepsilon$ was arbitrary, $G(a) = G(a+)$
nvm, I'm still confused
because monotone functions have only countably many points of discontinuity
indeed, that's a nice property
@Jakobian so...is $G(a) = G(a+)$ only for almost every $a$?
since what you've shown only works at points of continuity of $F$
ruminate on this
@Jakobian I've ruminated :D we have $0 < x-a < \min(\delta_1, \delta_2)$, so we can find an $x$ in that interval that is a point of continuity
If there was no such $x$ in that interval, we'd have uncountably many points of discontinuity
13:04
@Jakobian here are u taking coordinate wise addition, or something like $\sqrt{d_1^2+d_2^2}$
@nickbros123 what are you asking me
the metric on the product
i think coordinate wise addition itself works
the product topology $X\times Y$ can be obtained by various metrics
there is no one canonical choice
the metric $d((x_1, y_1), (x_2, y_2)) = (d_X(x_1, x_2)^p + d_Y(y_1, y_2)^p)^{1/p}$ for any $1\leq p < \infty$ for example, induces product topology on $X\times Y$
right, yeah
or put it differently, $d((x_1, y_1), (x_2, y_2)) = \|(d_X(x_1, x_2), d_Y(y_1, y_2))\|_p$ where $1\leq p\leq \infty$ and $\|\cdot \|_p$ is the $\ell^p$-norm induces product topology on $X\times Y$
in the language of metric spaces, those all metrics are topologically equivalent
they induce the same open sets
13:11
makes sense
that's why, when it comes to products, you usually don't specify a metric, in this case the topological view is the one that's more beneficial
this is one thing where doing things only with metric spaces obscures the view
13:56
@ShaVuklia Looks like the local inverse theorem to me
of the function $s, t\mapsto (X_1(s,t), X_2(s,t))$
14:30
@Astyx Ah, thanks. I think I'm starting to understand what they're doing
14:59
what r some interesting applications of the Lie algebra $[A,B]=i$ within pure math
$i$ is meant to be imaginary unit
15:56
you should specify what $A,B$ are supposed to be for that to make any sense
16:23
When I was proving that " 'X is closed with respect to every possible metric superspace' implies 'X is cauchy complete' " I made use of the completion of $X$, namely $X'$ that is somewhat like the smallest cauchy complete set that contains X, and $cls_{X'}(X)=X'$. Is there another method to do this, perhaps without using the completion?
im trying to involve the cantor intersection theorem here somehow
@Thorgott they r basis elements of a Lie algebra
A,B and i form a basis, think
[A,B]=i and [A,i]=0 , [B,i]=0
oh, so it's supposed to be three-dimensional
so what kind of property are you trying to convey by specifying $i$ is the imaginary unit?
and are your lie algebras real or complex?
@nickbros123 well, what you need to do is, given a Cauchy sequence in $X$, find a superspace of $X$ in which this Cauchy sequence converges. the completion does this for all Cauchy sequences at once, so it solves this problem in a sort of maximal fashion. you can also solve this problem in a sort of minimal fashion, by constructing a superspace of $X$ containing only one new point, whereto the given Cauchy sequence converges. but I don't think the approaches are significantly different.
16:43
@Thorgott it is complex
@Thorgott this algebra shows up in QM and they conventionally they write $i$ there
@Thorgott nvm im not sure if it is complex
I'm dealing with unif. conv of $$f_n(x) = \arctan(x^n)+\frac{x-6}{n}, n \ge 1, x \ge 0$$ in $[2,4]$? How would you guys proceed? I was able to disprove u.c. in [0,1] and $[2,\infty)$, but for this one I couldn't come up with anything useful
i think it is real
it is real @Thorgott
ok, so I suppose calling the third basis element $i$ does not have any mathematical significance
in QM, this algebra is represented on a complex Hilbert space. there, the $i$ is the imaginary unit @Thorgott
the group elements in QM are of the form $e^{iAt}$, which seems to mean that we are taking $iA$ as our generator.
this seems to imply it is kind of complex. but we never do $e^{(a+ib) A t}$
i think we can re-define $A'=iA$ and the new algebra is real
i think it is a complex algebra in general
because it is a complex Hilbert space. so it is allowed to talk about the generators multiplied by complex numbers
does this show up anywhere in pure math?
well, I still don't fully understand what you're trying to define
but if you're looking for the three-dimensional real Lie algebra with generators $x,y,z$ s.t. $[x,y]=z$ and $[x,z]=[y,z]=0$, this is the Heisenberg algebra, the Lie algebra of the Heisenberg group
16:59
Ok I think I've got it: the derivative $f_n'(x)$ is strictly positive in [2,4], so the function attains its maximum at x = 4, therefore $$\displaystyle\sup_{x \in [2,4]} |f_n(x)-f(x)| = |f_n(4)-f(4)| = |\arctan(4^n)-2/n-\pi/2| \to 0, \text{ as } n \to \infty$$
@Thorgott thanks
it's also the unique non-abelian, nilpotent three-dimensional real Lie algebra
wiki lists three applications of this algebra
@Thorgott oh
it seems it does not show up in many places
@Claudio I would first notice that $\frac{x-6}{n}$ obviously converges uniformly on any bounded closed interval to $0$, and so we can just deal with $\arctan(x^n)$
I was looking for places where it shows up. maybe the same ideas could be applied in QM
17:06
and then I would use Dini's theorem on uniform convergence
@Jakobian I see, I googled Dini's theorem on u.c.
we did not cover it in class though, it would've been impossible for me to use it before your suggestion unfort :p
$\arctan(x^n)$ is composition of increasing functions
@SineoftheTime yeah yeah I got that, I wonder why we left Dini's theorem out during lectures :)
@Jakobian thanks, your strategy is indeed quicker
@Claudio it was not covered during my course either
@Claudio even if not, its clear that $\arctan(2^n)\leq \arctan(x^n)\leq \pi/2$
I was just being fancy about it
this is what mathematicians do, they solve problems in fancy ways
17:17
I saw the proof and it requires some basic topology knowledge which we don't have so it makes sense I guess
@SineoftheTime the only references in the wiki page are from American textbooks (even the Italian version), maybe we have different names for it.
@Jakobian fancy is good :p
In matematica, il lemma di Dini fornisce una condizione sufficiente per ottenere la convergenza uniforme di una successione di funzioni continue convergente puntualmente ad una funzione continua ed ha svariate applicazioni nell'analisi matematica e in particolare nell'analisi funzionale. == Enunciato == Sia ( X , d ) {\displaystyle (X,d)} uno spazio metrico compatto e sia ( f n ) {\displaystyle (f_{n})} una...
@Thorgott Thanks, I think i have it now. from what youve said maybe this would work: we take a cauchy sequence $(x_n)$ and look at $x \not \in X $ to be a candidate for the limit of $x_n$. We define $\delta(a,b)=d(a,b)$ if $a,b \in X$, and $\delta(a,x)=\lim_{n \to \infty}d(a,x_n)$ (i think have an argument to show this limit exists). Then if we look at $\delta(x_k,x)=l_k=\lim_{n \to \infty}d(x_k,x_n)$, we can make this number arbitrary small for large values of $k$, hence $x_k \to x$
@SineoftheTime yeah I skimmed the article already
@nickbros123 yeah, that works
but spelling out why this is a well-defined metric and all is, in my opinion, not that much simpler than constructing the entire completion at once (of which this is a subspace also)
17:29
oh shit i forgot to show this was a metric lol
@Thorgott yeah there was a very sick completion method I saw using set of all bounded functions from $X \to \mathbb{R}$. That was actually quite short i think
oh yeah, there also was a construction like that
needless to say, I prefer the algebraist's approach
using equivlance classes?
if i remember correctly that equivalance classes of cauchy sequences version was straightforward, but lengthy
17:50
@Claudio huh
Uniform convergence is not topology
@nickbros123 Kuratowski
@Jakobian v cool technique
18:07
@nickbros123 yeah, that's the approach I mean
18:22
do you think this question applies to non-piecewise defined functions only?
obliv if you meditate on the mantra of what "a piecewise defined function" is, you might reach enlightenment
for d) I was going to define f in that manner but maybe it's not necessary
lol
I'm having a hard time thinking of c) @leslie
I'm guessing that's the impossible case, since if I'm allowed to define piecewise-defined functions then d) is possible, and so are a) and b)
I can just plug in the limit definition of the derivative to verify. yeah that seems legit
how would I go about this? I just plugged in the definition as $$\frac{d}{dx}(f+g):=\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}+\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{g(x)-g(0)}{x-0} = \lim_{x\to 0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)+g(x)-g(0)}{x-0}$$
18:39
Hint: $f=(f+g)-g$
19:04
Another theorem in Folland's that I think is quite challenging to understand. I've elaborated here.
 
1 hour later…
20:28
@SineoftheTime I’m sending you a big, strong hug. I don’t log in as often as I used to, like many years ago. Greetings from Sicily! Your are a very excellent user.
Best regards everyone.
20:41
@Sebastiano Thanks for the compliments but I'm average ahah
Nice to see you around
21:23
@copper.hat sorry, I over reacted. I'm back to chill again 😎
@IThinkHighlyOfEiligh Sorry I triggered you, it was unintentional and really a question.
No worries. It's just that I'm not simply parsing everything homogenously. I needed finer control in order to equate things such as $\longleftarrow$ with $\leftarrow$ etc.
not that it matters, but i have written parsers, verilog, an attempt at vhdl and many internal formats over the decades.
In other words, I'm handing off some of the semantics to the parser
generally i find it easier to make the ast as light as possible.
21:26
@copper.hat yes, I know you're a coder :) Parsing I find one of the hardest things
complicated if you need macro, etc, expansion.
No macros in my language, but original q.uiver.app supports them
I mean they'll appear to work on the frontend but when you send diagram to server, it will return with error data
personally i don't know what Knuth was thinking. have great respect for his abilities and what he has done, but surely he could have make the tex language a little less weird.
Maybe that could come in a later version
@copper.hat agreed :)
I feel the same way about webdev in general
no sh*t
21:28
It's very flimsy and much harder (for me ) than desktop apps
and much harder to debug/test
rest notwithstanding
Yep, I use Wing Pro (python / django) and on frontend I'm able to debug as it runs in VS code (the Javscript)
I usually go to the web browser dev tools first though
i find web stuff hard to work with. too many things going on, and little visibility. plus you have to learn a million sidetrack things, apache, flask, node, etc, etc
2
Anyway, since I'm using a database (Neo4j) to host diagrams, it's not going to be a very speedy thing to build up theorems, but once they're there you can simply link to them and so it will be a good reference for category theory hopefully
@copper.hat true
then again, my least favourite thing is c++ dev. it is like juggling nitro enhanced chain saws in the dark on crutches.
3
21:32
In order to do things quickly, I'd use Rust or C++ and code a Dependent Type Theory proof checker. Then render diagrams in 3D! But I'm still learning DTT so it's a longer term idea
*quickly at runtime not dev
It's almost impossible to write a proof checker without following a type theory recipe.
I've tried numerous times (about 20x)
c++ is so sweet, so tempting. but it's a terrible idea
Yes, I use a very small subset of it, rarely do I go into template hell
but template hell is the only reason to use it in the first place ;)
I would prefer Rust over C++, but I don't know enough about it yet
that's the whole appeal: powerful but deranged metaprogramming
21:35
gimme lisp any day. i can make an incomprehensible mess really quickly
rust is fantastic
lisp scares me
Yes, I've heard good things about it
Lean4 does everything I need it too, but I figure why learn Lean4 then be crippled by its limitations, not knowing anything about its kernel implementation. So I wanted to code from scratch on that, to learn and also to have better diagramming support builtin.
i would like to be able to dev in a high level language and then push down as necessary for performance. a million reasons why it can't be done, but i still want it
Lean4 compiles to C code if you want everything formally verified and then a usual program at the end
i fell for the java siren in the early Gosling days. bit mistake
21:38
We used Java in college, now I just use Javascript because quiver is written in it
formal verification of software is a pipe dream imo
not that they're related
i hate typescript
its like c++ except worse.
i mean like as in my hatred
I am actually working today on a sweat equity project: PyQt5 to C++ (a conversion of a demo code for a certain embedded device) for my dad (who's an EE)
i have no intuition for any gui stuff
21:40
The PyQt5 crashes / freezes because it cannot keep up with the device, but the Texas Instruments demo runs long enough for a demo. They want a nicer demo
I've been on the PyQt5 track for about 10 years. Wrote some backend engineering tools which didn't require us to purchase the commercial license
ok, i better get back to my paying work... later!
Later 😉
Somehow I have to understand 3D code again at least enough to get this demo done
22:16
Hello. I am confused about this answer to this question. math.stackexchange.com/questions/773576/…
If we have a function g(t) its Fourier transform is g(f) hat = int+- g(t) * e^(-2pi i t f ) dt

Now. The FT of a constant function is zero, because the vector oscilates in the complex plane to infinitely and they all cancel out.

I don't get what is the FT when g(t)= 0, it says that it is infinite, i.e. defining the dirac delta combining the two.

I don't get why is the FT infinite when g(t) = 0
We have int+- inf 0 dt , shouldn't that also be zero?
The Fourier transform of a constant function is not zero. The oscillations do not "cancel out"---the function $t \mapsto c \mathrm{e}^{-2\pi i t x}$ is not integrable (in the sense that the integral of its absolute value does not converge).
pie
pie
An ODE book but GTM? link.springer.com/book/10.1007/978-1-4612-0601-9. I never expected that.
It has been a long time since I thought deeply about these things, but my recollection is that the Fourier transform is typically initially defined on $L^1 \cap L^2$. In that setting, you can do fancy Hilbert space things, which is nice because (a) $L^2$ is self-dual, and (b) the Fourier transform plays nice with the dual pairing.
The Fourier transform can then be extended to spaces of distributions via this dual pairing.
To really do it right, you need to study distributions.
3
A: Meaning of the Fourier transform of $1$

user296602Short intuitive answer: The Fourier transform breaks functions down into their constituent frequencies, and frequency is the inverse of wavelength. A constant function $1$ is so spread out that it effectively has infinite wavelength, or zero frequency. Hence its Fourier transform is concentrated ...

22:37
Ok the integral is indeed not defined in that sense. But I was just imagining it in my head.

I imagine it as we multiply the function g(t) with the complex exponential and since the complex exponential rotates around the unit circle, its like winding the g(t) around the unit circle, and if it is constant than that just scales the complex unit circle but we still get rotations infinitely in all directions. I am just trying to vizualise this, not rigorous at all sry.
if I know two series of functions $\displaystyle\sum_k f_k(x), \displaystyle\sum_k g_k(x)$ converge uniformly on $[a,b]$, then does their sum $(f_k+g_k)$ uniformly converge on $[a,b]$ as well?
@XanderHenderson By looking at this answer yes, a uniform constant line has infinite wavelenght and hence zero frequency.
because I just used this result in an exercise withouth giving it too much thought, but now I'm questioning its validity hahah
claudio: you should give it some thought if you haven't before, but yes this is true
I knew it :P
I mean I knew it wasn't trivial
22:44
well, it isn't deep or something that textbooks would necessarily call out every time they ever used it (or even at any point ever). it would be fair to give this as an exercise right after the definition of uniform convergence
but yes it is something that requires proof, it isn't built right into the definition
the way some things very close to this can be
I mean the supremum of a sum of functions is always less then the sum of their respective suprema
Everything is a triangle inequality
I'm basically maximizing two functions so yeah it should be ok to write $$\displaystyle\sup_{x \in [a,b]}\left| \sum_{k=n+1}^{\infty}(g_k(x)+f_k(x)) \right|\le \displaystyle\sup_{x \in [a,b]}\left| \sum_{k = n+1}^{\infty}g_k(x) \right| + \displaystyle\sup_{x \in [a,b]}\left| \sum_{k = n+1}^{\infty}f_k(x) \right|$$
and using the squeeze theorem I get the wanted result
But looking at this answer about FT

"Your computation is incorrect, because the value of $e^{-j2\pi f t}$ oscillates around the unit circle in the complex plane as
$t \to \pm \infty$ (it doesn't approach either $0$ or $\infty$), unless $f = 0$, in which case it is constantly equal to $1$.

Thus, if we average over all values of $t$, we get $0$ if $f \neq 0$ (all the oscillations in the different directions cancel out), while we get $\infty$ if $f = 0$. So we have a function which is zero at all $f \neq 0$ and infinite at $f = 0$, i.e. $\delta(f)$."
I'm having a hard time with fully understanding series of functions :p my brain can't process them hahaha
especially uniform convergence, which is the most obscure among the types of convergence imo
22:57
Just add $\sup$.
@Claudio Really?
I'm feeling stupid now :)
The basic idea is pretty simple. If $f_n$ converges to $f$, then for each $\varepsilon > 0$, you can imagine a little $\varepsilon$-sausage around $f$. $f_n$ needs to stay inside of that sausage for all $n$ large enough.
@XanderHenderson I don't know, uniform conv for sequences of functions is easily visualizable
but then again, when x is fixed, a series of fucntion is just a normal series, but then you have to take the sup so x is not fixed anymore
What?
I don't understand...
23:02
a series of functions is in particular a sequence of functions
@BenSteffan Yeah my brain is convinced of this, but when I do exercises I still think of them as separate entities :p
well, don't.
it's that simple :)
@BenSteffan I wish it were
I mean, really: Define $\alpha_k(x) = \sum_{i = 0}^k f_i(x)$ and then work with the sequence $\alpha_k$ instead if it helps you
Yeah I'll try to do that
23:14
In something like $(1 + \limsup_{n \to \infty} n)$, can I just replace $\limsup$ with $\liminf$?
When am I allowed to just replace it with sup/inf?
here you can because the sequence is monotone
(and thus converges in $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$)
since it's monotonically increasing, $\sup$ is also fine. $\inf$ obviously isn't.

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