What is unclear in my
question, and Ramiro has been very helpful, is how to obtain $$\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} f(x) \,dx = \int_0^\infty \int_{S^{n-1}} f(rx') r^{n-1} \,d\sigma (x') dr.\tag{2.50}$$When we work with the incomplete measure $\rho\times\sigma=m_\ast$, then formula (2.50) for $f=\chi_E$ reduces simply to $\rho\times\sigma(E)=m_\ast(E)$ (where recall, $m_\ast(E)=m(\Phi^{-1}(E))$ and $m$ is Lebesgue measure).