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00:17
for a map $f:S^n\to S^n$ is its degree the same as that of the suspension map $\Sigma f:\Sigma S^n\to \Sigma S^n$?
yes
this is immediate from the suspension isomorphism
 
1 hour later…
01:41
@SineoftheTime nice gear
 
5 hours later…
06:36
If I have a binary matrix over F_2, how much smaller can the number of ones in its inverse be?
06:59
if n is odd and you let I, 1, and U respectively denote the nxn identity matrix, the nx1 column vector with all 1s in it, and the nxn matrix with all 1s in it, then the matrix [[I,1],[1^T,0]], which has 3n ones in it, appears to be invertible with inverse [[U-I,1],[1^T,1]], which has (n+1)^2 - n ones in it. if that's right, it would show that for an (n+1)x(n+1) matrix with n odd, the ratio of ones in an invertible matrix to ones in the inverse matrix can at least be as small as 3n/((n+1)^2 - n)
no idea if that's close to optimal, but it's something
 
4 hours later…
11:02
Let $E$ be a set contained in a open ball of radius $K$, i.e. with finite measure. Consider now the open ball of radius $K+1$. By outer regularity of Lebesgue measure, we can find a decreasing sequence of sets $\{U_j\}$ belonging to the open ball with radius $K+1$ such that $E\subset\bigcap_1^\infty U_j$ and $m\left(\bigcap_1^\infty U_j\setminus E\right)=0$. My gut tells me $\chi_{U_j}\to\chi_E$ a.e., though I'm not sure how to show this.
@psie one can definitely take $U_j\subseteq W_K$ here, so I'm not sure either
@Jakobian yeah, I guess the author did it to provide some wiggle room for the $U_j$, i.e. if $E=W_K$, then we can not really construct a sequence $U_j$.
We can
sure, there is only one sequence then :)
@psie 2.40b is used, recall definition of $G_\delta$ set
Given such $G_\delta$ set $\bigcap_j V_j$ one can take $U_j = W_K\cap V_1\cap...\cap V_j$
Then $\bigcap_j U_j$ will be a $G_\delta$ set with the desired properties
11:13
@Jakobian ok đź‘Ť are you sure that $W_K$ is open?
@psie yes. All the things here are continuous
@psie consider $x$ outside that $G_\delta$ set and in $E$
@Jakobian you don't mean $x\in \left(\bigcap_j U_j\right)^c\cap E$, do you?
No, the union of them
The complement of which is a null set
If $x$ is not in the $G_\delta$ set then from monotonicity assumption there is $N$ such that $x$ is not in $U_k$ for $k\geq N$
So the limit exists and is $0$
Same as $\chi_E(x)$
And if $x\in E$?
ok, if $x\in E$, then yeah, $\chi_{U_j}(x)=\chi_E(x)$
@Jakobian I'm still doubting this though. $W_K$ is contained in an open ball and indeed $|\det D_xG|$ is continuous. The thing is, the set notation has two conditions which confuses me as to how to conclude openness of $W_K$.
$\Omega$ is of course open too.
11:41
@copper.hat :)
manual or automatic transmission?
11:55
@Jakobian I think I see now why $W_K=\Omega\cap\{x:|x|<K\text{ and } |\det D_xG|<K\}$ is open; we can write $W_K=\Omega\cap B(K,0)\cap f^{-1}((-\infty,K))$, where $f(x)=|\det D_xG|$. These are all open sets.
Thanks!
12:31
@psie well sure. Its just that I see its open without even writing the equality $W_K = ...$ because I am so used to those type of arguments
 
1 hour later…
pie
pie
13:35
Hey everyone! I’ve noticed a lot of people I know IRL, especially high school students, struggle to find a starting point for self-learning math. I’m thinking about posting a question on MSE to ask for a community wiki-style roadmap that could guide beginners through different math subjects.
The idea would be for answers to cover prerequisites, recommended books, lectures, and problem books if available, as well as advanced levels for each topic. Do you think that’s a good idea? And would it be within the site’s guidelines?
that sounds like something that should already exist
that sounds like something that would get closed pretty quickly :)
lol yeah, i was speaking with respect to sites like art of problem solving, or chicago math bibliography or something broad like that
it's dubious whether this compatible with site guidelines, but my experience is that people don't take kindly to these questions
i can see how it can be closed as "opinion based"
13:37
it's not about mathematics per se and might be classified as personal advice or opinion based, with some justification
yeah
look at this search and see how many questions there are closed, say math.stackexchange.com/search?q=studying
pie
pie
14:19
I get where you’re coming from, but I think a community wiki post like this could really help a lot of users. Right now, we see a lot of repeat questions from people just starting out, all asking for guidance on where to begin. Having a structured, community-driven roadmap could serve as a go-to reference or FAQ for these questions, making it easier for new users to find answers and reducing the need for these types of posts.
Also, I’d like to get a moderator's opinion on this, since the question would ideally be a community wiki, and I believe only mods can convert a post to that format.
I don't disagree with the intention
I'm telling you that I doubt the post would live very long
sure, asking a mod is a good idea :)
pie
pie
@XanderHenderson What do you think?
 
1 hour later…
15:49
I really wish i had the time to solve dummit and foote's group theory properly. There seems to be a good serving of computational examples to build intuition, along with standard tricks sprinkled into the exercises. but unfortunately i gotta study for an exam so I am doing minimal exercises, just some proofs here and there, and the assignments. Exams really get in the way of ones learning
it sounds really weird to say that I will seriously study group theory after the semesters over lmao
16:05
does it? it sounds pretty normal to me
I will certainly use the winter break to study material form the term I deem important or interesting
Radical idea: $\infty=-\infty$
congratulations, you have discovered the 1-point compactification
the 1-point compactification of $\mathbb{R}$ is the space $\mathbb{R}^+ = \mathbb{R} \cup \{\infty\}$ toplogized in a way so that a sequence in $\mathbb{R}$ which diverges to $\pm \infty$ converges to $\infty$ in $\mathbb{R}^+$
Alternatively it is the quotient of $\bar{\mathbb{R}}$ under the identification $\infty \sim -\infty$
Time for the 1-point compactification of $\mathbb{U}$ then!
16:14
what in god's name is $\mathbb{U}$
I don't think I have seen a bb U in my life
compactify you
I'm already compact
@BenSteffan I thought that was the universal set containing all numbers?
The universal set containing all numbers is $\mathbb{C}$ :^)
maybe $\mathbb{H}$ if you're generous
16:20
@BenSteffan same. I also use it to sleep 12 hrs a day
haha me too
16:35
Time to measure the complexity of messages in this room using units of $f_\omega\left(\log_m(2^{N+g^l})\right)+1$.
Where $f_x(y)$ is the Wainer fast growing hierarchy, $m$ is metres, $N$ is newtons, $g$ is grams, and $l$ is litres.
16:57
one-point compactification is a unique compactification $Z$ such that $|Z\setminus X| = 1$
Marvelous thing about this definition is that you don't need to construct $Z$ in any way
it's only unique if compact includes Hausdorff and then you ought to require that $X$ is LCH
actually, its "compactification" that does here
in this definition I'm also not saying it has to exist
for non-Hausdorff spaces, a compactification is almost something that seems to be more useful to not require $X$ to be a subspace of $Z$ at all
at least, that's what I was thinking encountering all the constructions of the type
but then again I didn't encounter a setting where such compactifications matter
my definition is that a compactification of a space $X$ is a compact hausdorff space $Z$ and a map $f:X\to Z$ which is an embedding such that $f(X)$ is dense in $Z$
essentially... it doesn't really matter if we identify $X$ with $f(X)$ in this definition of course, but this is more categorical perhaps
it is pretty important how $X$ is embedded in $Z$ and not just the space $Z$, which people seem to neglect sometimes
17:13
is cheating at giving a talk by printing part of your material as a handout and asking people to just read it morally defensible
not that I have much of a choice here but
I've saw people giving handouts before as a way to better understand the presented material, not sure about this case though
17:41
ben: how are you using the material? if it's "trust me on this, this is as simple as i'm saying it is" or "this is complicated but believe me, there's a proof at the level of this talk," a link to a web page would be as good as a handout, although a handout might be nice.
it is a core definition of the talk :)
it only strikes me as cheating if you're somehow treating the audience as if they have knowledge of the thing you're handing out, like "there, i gave it to you, you know it, and using that information right now we see..."
maybe "core" is overstating it a little but it is very important
I'm going to give the audience a second to read the definition and then explain it, I just don't want to have to write it on the board
oh, so you are counting on them to somehow digest it in real time :) that feels a lot like cheating in my book, although a lot of people with access to typewritten slides will cheat on a projector, so it's a very common form of cheating
in any sense, probably preferable to having the audience watch you write for 10 minutes
really I'm asking a rhetorical question here haha
I know it's not great
17:46
this is just the standard problem with lecturing from anything other than a blank chalkboard, where the space and time limitations (in theory) push you toward crafting your talk so it is more understandable by human minds in real time
in practice, almost everybody is like "ooh, with as many slides as i want, space is free, they just go right up on the screen at the click of a button, time is free, DATA DUMP"
you have my blessing to dump data, just say 15 "i'm sorrys" to a picture of your favorite mathematician who didn't live to see cheap on-demand printing or computer based slide projection
and you aren't absolved unless you really mean it
sure, but this is very much a lecturing-from-a-blank-blackboard kinda situation
and also I will be graded on it so :)
18:01
@BenSteffan that is to say, it would be, if you weren't cheating
i'll stop, i'll stop :)
18:26
@leslietownes Ben is cheating?!
I am, in fact, cheating
time to get suspeded for rule violation
oh I'm a topologist I love getting suspended
being suspended only makes you nicer :)
and more stable
18:49
@pie About what?
5 hours ago, by pie
Hey everyone! I’ve noticed a lot of people I know IRL, especially high school students, struggle to find a starting point for self-learning math. I’m thinking about posting a question on MSE to ask for a community wiki-style roadmap that could guide beginners through different math subjects.
@Xander
Probably not on topic here.
5 hours ago, by pie
The idea would be for answers to cover prerequisites, recommended books, lectures, and problem books if available, as well as advanced levels for each topic. Do you think that’s a good idea? And would it be within the site’s guidelines?
I've read the proof of the change of variables formula in Folland's book, but he only proves it for Borel measurable function and sets. The key identity he establishes is $$m(G(E))\leq\int_E|\det D_xG|\,dx$$and everything follows from this. I wonder, how do I show this inequality for Lebesgue sets $E\subset\Omega$, where $\Omega$ is the domain of $G$?
Here's my attempt; $$m(G(E))=m(G(A\cup M))\leq m(G(A))+m(G(M))\leq \int_A|\det D_xG|\,dx+m(G(M)).$$I don't know what to do with the term $m(G(M))$, where $M$ is a Lebesgue null set. Any ideas?
I don't know if I'm approaching this the right way. The change of variables formula is $$\int_{G(\Omega)}f(x)\,dx=\int_\Omega f\circ G(x)|\det D_xG|\,dx.$$Maybe there is a more direct way if this already holds for Borel functions $f$.
19:10
Is it not the case that every Lebesgue function differs from a Borel function on a set of measure zero? Isn't that, like, the whole idea?
(I haven't thought through the details of the theory in more than a decade, but, like... it's a null set. Who cares?)
@XanderHenderson I get the same feeling, but I can only be certain once I've shown that no one cares :)
I think $G$ maps $M$ to another null set, but I don't know what's the justification (with the tools from the book, e.g. Lipschitz continuity has not been mentioned yet).
I guess your point makes more sense rather than my approach above in proving that inequality. $f$ equals a.e. to a Borel measurable function, and thus the same formula holds for $f$.
19:40
I guess I need to use that the integral with respect to the complete measure equals the integral of the incomplete measure, as I was talking about some weeks ago.
Can someone help me with simple rules that one should follow when making substitutions in an equation
@imbAF what do you mean?
I am writing it
Please may I have some feedback on the following?
-1
Q: What is the lattice of truth values in $\mathbf{Set}^2$?

ShaunFollowing on from this question of mine from a long time ago, I would like to know What is the lattice of truth values in $\mathbf{Set}^2$? Which lattice? I mean the Heyting algebra. I suspect that $(1,1)$ is at the top and $(0,0)$ is at the bottom. Since I think $(0,1)$ and $(1,0)$ are isomo...

If I have this expression : $$H=\sum_{\mu,\nu=1}h_{\mu,\nu} c^\dagger_\mu c_\nu$$ and this $\gamma^\dagger_\alpha=\sum_{\nu=1}^n a_\nu c^\dagger_\nu$. And I substitute them here: $[H,\gamma^\dagger_\alpha]=E_\alpha \gamma^\dagger_\alpha$, Do I need to substitute the sums for $\gamma^\dagger_\alpha$ with the same index on both sides?
My attempt is to have a system of equations for the complex components $a_\nu$
But this is what happens to me:
$$[H,\gamma^\dagger_\alpha]=E_\alpha \gamma^\dagger_\alpha$$

$$[H,\sum_{\nu=1}^n a_\nu c^\dagger_\nu]=\sum_{\nu=1}^n E_\alpha a_\nu c^\dagger_\nu$$

$$\sum_{\nu=1}^n a_\nu[H,c^\dagger_\nu]=\sum_{\nu=1}^n E_\alpha a_\nu c^\dagger_\nu$$

$$\sum_{\nu=1}^n a_\nu[\sum_{\mu,\beta=1}h_{\mu,\beta} c^\dagger_\mu c_\beta,c^\dagger_\nu]=\sum_{\nu=1}^n E_\alpha a_\nu c^\dagger_\nu$$

Here I use the commutator relation for ladder operators: $[AB,C]=A\{B,C\}-\{A,C\}B$ and that $\{\gamma^\dagger_\alpha,\gamma_\beta\}=\delta_{\alpha\beta}$
Am I doing something wrong, math wise?
19:54
@imbAF wdym "same index on both sides"
index is only relevant for what's under the sum
I mean that you have $\gamma^\dagger_\alpha$ in both sides of the equation
So I will substitute it with the suggested expression that contains a sum
in both sides
If I do that, in the end I come to an equation of sums, with different indices
so I cannot equate terms
since the component contain different notation
I wrote above, what the issue is here
well yes, you wrote that the issue is that you don't end up with what you should end up
Yes, so I want to know
from a mathematical pov
Are my actions accurate?
Or am I mistaken somewhere ?
19:58
I don't know what a single of the terms in your equation means, how am I supposed to know :)
this very much smells like physics
Basically what is c is an operator and the rest are numbers
and I wrote that if you have 3 operators in this way: $[AB,C]$ you can write it in another way
Which is written there
I don't know what the word "operator" means here, nor do I understand your summation conventions, nor anything else
I see
this is better asked in the physics.SE chat, if such a thing exists I think
I thought it was a math issue
20:01
it might be, but if it is it is buried under notation that's foreign to mathematicians
somebody familiar with the notation would be more help
Just a math question
If you have an expression and you have a term, the same term on RHS and LHS
And the term can be expressed as a sum
would you write: $....\sum_n....=....\sum_n$ or $\sum_n....=....\sum_m$ ?
The latter right?
the latter is nicer, but the former is not wrong
it depends what you want to do
Yeah but even if you write the 2nd one
it's not incorrect to write with the same index on both sides
20:04
You should in the end come to an expression where the summations on both sides have the same index
if you want to compare coef. that multply the component of the sums, right?
no, not really. The indexing variable is just a helper.
But if I am asked to compare the coef. multiplying the term e.g $c^\dagger_\alpha$ on both sides, then that implies that, no?
I have been spending 3 days with this particular problem and I can't seem to find a solution
But thanks
$\alpha$ is just an index here, no?
yeah
it's a standin for 1, 2, 3, etc.
20:08
yes
I mean I could explain what is going on from a math pov
and you are right this is physics
so you need to show that the coefficients of $c_1^\dagger$, $c_2^\dagger$, etc. have to be equal on both sides
but now the indexing variable is gone :)
but I think it has more to do with math, I rather suspect that
Yeah
I end up with something like this:
$$\sum_{\mu,\nu,\beta=1}h_{\mu,\beta}a_\nu c^\dagger_\mu\delta_{\beta\nu}=\sum_{\nu=1}^n E_\alpha a_\nu c^\dagger_\nu$$
Because my aim is to have a system of equations for the complex number $a_\nu$
And the suggestion given is to compare the coef. of $c^\dagger_\nu$ on both sides of the equation
$c^\dagger_nu$ is something that mathematically can be written as a matrix
so not a number
sure, so you need to show that the coefficients are equal for $\mu = 1$ on the left and $\nu = 1$ on the right, then for $\mu = 2$ and $\nu = 2$, etc.
exactly
I mean i could explain you there rules
that way you can
sorry, really not interested in that :)
20:12
You can give me a definite answer as to whether the problem is not in the math
which would imply that I don't know something about the physics involved
Ok
I don't want to consider this further, sorry
I understand
Again, I think the physics.se community would be of more help here. They also understand their maths quite well :)
Ok, I will do that
Thanks
X4J
X4J
Suppose G is a group and H is a non-empty subset of G. By thinking of every g \in G as a permutation on G: is claiming that H is a subgroup of G would be precisely the same as claiming that each element in H satisfies that the restriction of it to H (restriction as for functions) is itself a permutation on H?
20:37
@X4J yes
you should try and prove that :)
20:56
Do the math conventions actually conflate the outer product and the tensor product? Both are notated as $\mathbf{v} \otimes \mathbf{w}$.
which outer product?
In linear algebra, the outer product of two coordinate vectors is the matrix whose entries are all products of an element in the first vector with an element in the second vector. If the two coordinate vectors have dimensions n and m, then their outer product is an n × m matrix. More generally, given two tensors (multidimensional arrays of numbers), their outer product is a tensor. The outer product of tensors is also referred to as their tensor product, and can be used to define the tensor algebra. The outer product contrasts with: The dot product (a special case of "inner product"), which takes...
This one.
looks to be essentially the same thing as the tensor product
you just reinterpret $\mathbb{R}^n \otimes \mathbb{R}^m$ as $\mathbb{R}^{n \times m}$
so the notation seems reasonable, but I've never come across this
The quirk is, the tensor product gives a vector, and the outer product gives a linear transformation.
the word vector is meaningless
the tensor product gives an element of a vector space, yes
a linear transformation is also an element of a vector space
i.e. a vector
also, to be somewhat pedantic, the outer product gives a matrix, not a linear transformation
but since we're working in $\mathbb{R}^n$ anyway I guess that doesn't really matter
21:02
I'd prefer the physics convention for linear algebraic objects. $\vert v \rangle \langle w \vert$ for the outer product, and $\vert v \rangle \otimes \vert w \rangle$ for the tensor product.
And the quirk is, this extends to an arbitrary Hilbert space.
This is how quantum mechanics let those students' brain explode.
I somehow doubt this. The outer product in particular depends on a choice of basis.
It doesn't. What vector is referred by $(\vert u \rangle \langle v \vert) \vert w \rangle = \vert u \rangle \langle v \vert w \rangle$ persists regardless of the basis.
That's precisely the point. Your expression doesn't, but the definition from the wikipedia article does.
So these are not the same
The basis matters only for their calculation.
The Wikipedia page has a section for the abstract definition and that addresses the fact well.
21:18
@psie how about writing $E = A\setminus N$ where $N$ is a null set and $A$ is a Borel set?
Then $$m(G(E))\leq m(G(A)) \leq \int_A |\det D_x G| dx = \int_E |\det D_x G| dx$$
That $G$ maps null sets to null sets is kind of what is being proven here as well, so maybe not the good route to take
hmm, yeah, the way I've motivated it now is just that if $f$ is Lebesgue measurable it is $\overline{\mu}$-a.e. equal to $g$, where $g$ is a Borel measurable function and $\overline{\mu}$ is the complete Lebesgue measure. Then since $\int f\,d\overline{\mu}=\int g\,d\mu$, it follows that the change of variables formula also holds for $f$.
I will admit, this is probably not the way Folland intended for the theorem to be proved for Lebesgue measurable function, as he refers to an earlier theorem and says it follows like the arguments given there
Or like this: if $N$ is a null-set one can find a Borel null set $N\subseteq M$ so that $m(G(N))\leq m(G(M)) = 0$ from proved formula
So $G$ maps null sets to null sets
yeah, that's nice
then I don't have to use that $C^1$ diffeo is Lipschitz on compact sets
I don't know how I'd use that $G$ would be Lipschitz anyway, not sure
21:42
i have dealt with analysis, etc, for more than 4 decades, not my main line of work. what is depressing is that if i back off mathematics for a few months (work, life, etc, interfering with my maths enjoyment) then all 4 decades seem to disappear and need an intense refresher. so depressing...
doing maths sucks
i wish, because that would be an additional source of enjoyment...
strange how "sucks" and "blows" can have similar meaning in some contexts.
22:04
Tired of math? Study physics! (jk)
I know a person who's going to do just that haha
finishing their masters' in mathematics right now and already started on another undergrad in physics
as you do
Sorry, that plan is under postponement.
Heck, when I was undergrad, my secondary major was electronic informatics.
That sounds useful
I personally am committed to uselessness :^)
If I take another undergrad course into applied physics, my another secondary major would be creative writing.
That's 4 majors in total.
Money is all I need.
study finance :^)
22:09
Finance? Nah, I don't mean I'm greedy.
$f(\mathbf{x}):\mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R},A \in \mathbb{R}^{m \times n}, \mathbf{b} \in \mathbb{R}^n$ and $f(x) = x^T A^T A x -2b^T A x +b^T b$. The matrix $A$ has full rank. I know that $f$ is convex. I proved that $A^T A$ is positive definite. Is the following line safe to write: $$f(x) \ge \lambda_{min}|x|^2-2b^TAx+|b|^2 \to \infty \text{ as } |x| \to \infty $$
@DannyuNDos Tired of math? Study math
7
@Jakobian Insert understandable, have a great day meme
@Claudio If by $\lambda_\min$ you refer to $A^TA$, then yes.
yeah the smallest eigenvalue
sorry forgot to mention that :P
22:14
@Claudio -1 and vote to close for lack of context
It just follows because for any symmetric (real) matrix you have $x^TBx \ge \lambda_\min(B) \|x\|^2$.
I mean... I don't intend to take any undergrad course from the college that Political Finance belongs, and if I intended so, I'd rather take North Korean Studies.
It is true for any $x$.
that much I know, I was worried about the middle term
what's an eigenvalue :(
22:15
who knows, they eat cats & dogs apparently
Huh?
We don't.
i was thinking that maybe I should take $|b| |Ax|$ instead of leaving it like that
@Claudio it really depends on what you are trying to do, hard to guess :-)
@copper.hat I mean, I'm aware North Koreans do, but we South Koreans don't.
I wanna show that $f$ is coercive
22:17
I have understood what a left module is
great success!
i don't have a philosophical objection to eating cats, dogs, horses, etc.
namely $\lim_{|x|\to \infty} f(x) \to \infty$
I don't think I have time to understand what a module is unfortunately
@Claudio all you need is that $A^TA$ is invertible.
wait I don't know
No wait, I need to know that $\lambda_{min} >0$
But I showed in a previous exercise that it is indeed the case
22:19
$A^TA$ is invertible iff $\lambda_\min >0$.
Think of $A^TA$ as diagonal.
I'm not sure about the sign
yeah, i'm mixed about ace of base
oh ok I showed that $A^TA$ is semidefinite positive so I used the fact that $A^TA$ is invertible
then I'm done
Fun story: I was talking after the lecture about this exercise and my professor realized that the exercise did have some problems since $A$ was a generic mxn matrix, therefore she added (today) the stronger assumption that $A$ has full rank lol
that happens
22:26
but it's not funny when happens during exams :(
good of you to notice and talk to her :)
@SineoftheTime true,
$x^T A^T A x -2b^T A x +b^T b \ge \lambda_\min \|x\|^2 - 2 \|b\|\|x\| -\|b\|^2 \ge \|x\|^2(\lambda_\min+{2 \|b\| \over \|x\|} -{ \|b\|^2 \over \|x\|^2})$.
funnier fact: she discovered that the weaker assumption still works and to back this up she linked this
but in exams somebody always seems to notice
@SineoftheTime dang
@copper.hat how did you get that mid term expression?
the matrix disappeared?
22:29
Oops, add in $\|A^Tb\|$, sorry
too late to edit
is $\langle b, Ax\rangle \ge |A^Tb| |x|$ trivial to show?
i took an exam from Manuel Blum (complexity guy) and there was an ambiguity in the question. during the exam i asked him to elaborate but he refused so i answered both forms of the question. a few weeks later he made a fuss about it in class and wrote my name on the board.
i ask all range of questions from blindingly obvious to subtle.
strangely, people think i am stupid for asking the latter class
@copper.hat yikes
that's terrible
don't call people out in class
@copper.hat I've found a useful result: $$ |Ax|\le |A||x|, |A| = \sqrt{\sum_{i}^{m}\sum_{j}^{n}a^2_{ij} }$$
it was neither positive nor negative
22:35
there's still absolutely no reason to put somebody's name on the board
@Claudio you need to be careful with that. what norm are you using on $x$
euclidean
that follows because $\|A\|_2 \le \|A\|_F$, where the first is the induced Euclidean norm.
But, in general, the Frobenious norm is not submultiplicative.
this might be too advanced for me hahaha
A cute result is $\|A\|_2 = \sigma_\max(A), \|A\|_F = \sqrt{ \sum_k \sigma_k(A) }$.
you should absolutely learn about the svd if you have not already.
the svd is not a disease
22:43
@copper.hat I will drop the Frobenius norm result and just go with Cauchy-Schwarz, you kinda scared me there hahaha
I always get the two Schwar(t)z's wrong lol
sry, didn't mean to. sometimes more knowledge is not a good thing.
no worries hhaha :p I greatly appreciate your help btw @copper.hat
@Claudio :-) just glanced at your profile. my 21 year old son is somewhere in Italy atm.
I was playing with abelian groups and categorical limits.
Then I noticed that the direct limit of $\mathbf{0} \to \mathbb{Z}_2 \to \mathbb{Z}_4 \to \mathbb{Z}_8 \to \cdots$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}[1/2] / \mathbb{Z}$, where $\mathbb{Z}[1/2]$ is the adjoint ring with multiplication forgotten.
@@copper.hat that's an awesome coincidence hahaha
22:51
he's working on a farm (WOOF?) he loves the food.
@copper.hat wait how did you know Im 21 years old as well?
And the inverse limit of $\mathbf{0} \leftarrow \mathbb{Z}_2 \leftarrow \mathbb{Z}_4 \leftarrow \mathbb{Z}_8 \leftarrow \cdots$? It's isomorphic to the 2-adic integers.
@Claudio I didn't :-)
dang double coincidence :p
he was in Modena for a while, I insisted that he visit the Ferrari museum :-)
my first time in Italy was a long time ago, in Rimini.
22:54
a wild $\mathbb{Z}(2^\infty)$ appears
@copper.hat that is awesome, farm work is awesome, it clears the mind and lets one appreciate what he eats truly
@copper.hat Modena is great for food, maybe great is a bit of an underestimation :p
i suppose, i grew up in Ireland in the 60's, farm work was pretty tiring & monotonous :-)
@copper.hat at least it only has a countable amount of discontinuities
i think i am missing some subtle thread here :-)
It's funny that the direct limit has countable cardinality, while the inverse limit doesn't.
22:57
@copper.hat We completed the olive harvesting on friday. My back still hurts, but I enjoyed it a lot. I don't know, after reading Vagabond's farming arc my whole view changed :p
but Ireland is a whole different beast hahaha
@Claudio I suspect the weather in IT is a little nicer to be outside than IRL :-)
@DannyuNDos is that surprising? :)
where I live yeah, the north has been going through floodings and vexing hailstorms unfort
Sorry to hear that.
@copper.hat but yeah Ireland is obv a bit rougher
22:59
Different, everywhere has its ups & downs...
@copper.hat Italy, now Spain
Yeah, one of the lads in my group lives near Valencia.
@BenSteffan I mean... I tried acquiring $\mathbb{Z}$ from finite abelian groups, and ended up with totally different objects.
That is sad, hope he's doing fine. Btw, I realized it's 12 AM already, I need to go to bed, I have lessons at 8 tomorrow :|
Good night :-) I'm off to try cycling for a while, I managed to injure my hamstring a few days ago, I'm hoping I can at least cycle.
23:01
have a good cycling session then :p
Buona notte (thx Google)
@DannyuNDos valiant endeavour, but ultimately doomed :P

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