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00:01
"a bit" as in, like, it's sort of a converse
sku
sku
for the question that there is a unique sup for a non empty set of real numbers, here is my proof (different from textbook). Let a and b be the two different sups. WLOG, a <= b. If a < b, then b is not a sup. If not they are equal. Is this correct?
The only property needed to have unique sups is that $x\leq y$ and $y\leq x$ implies $x = y$
sku
sku
00:59
is my argument incorrect in some way?
Aloha algebros and topologists
What’s cracka lackin
 
8 hours later…
09:25
Is there a metric $\tilde{d}$ such that $[0,1),|\cdot |$ be homeomorphic to $[0,1),\tilde{d}$ where $\tilde{d}$ is such a metric that $[0,1),\tilde{d}$ is a complete metric space?
I can see that if $x_n$ is a cauchy sequence in $\{[0,1),||\}$ then $f(x_n)$ must diverge, but cannot conclude anything more
part of me thinks this is possible
but another part thinks its not possible
09:44
@nickbros123 its possible
Do you want me to write you a solution
More generally this is equivalent to being a $G_\delta$ subset of $\mathbb{R}$
You might be surprised to know that irrational numbers can be made to be complete for example
@Jakobian i just wanna know where i should start thinking
@nickbros123 what is $[0, 1)$ homeomorphic to?
[0,1) is Homeomorphic to $R$ among other things?
oh wait its not
i think (0,1) is homeomorphic to R
to push in an extra point, one needs a discontinuous function @nickbros123
09:56
yeah just noticed
@RyderRude huh?
@Jakobian i mean that the only bijections between [0,1) and (0,1) are discontinuous functions
Random
 
3 hours later…
12:42
@Jakobian can I get another hint?
12:53
@nickbros123 hint
thanks for the hint
13:08
@nickbros123 $[0, 1)$ is homeomorphic to certain closed subset of $\mathbb{R}$
I think I have a function for [0,infty)
$2/\pi \arctan(x)$ works?
Sure
Now translate the metric structure from $[0, \infty)$ to $[0, 1)$
 
2 hours later…
15:43
I'm skimming through Spivak's Calculus on Manifolds. In the inverse function theorem, he states that $$(f^{-1})'(y)=[f'(f^{-1}(y))]^{-1}.$$I'm a bit rusty with his material. He uses $f'(a)$ to denote the Jacobian of the associated linear map $Df(a)$. So in this case, would it be incorrect to write $$Df^{-1}(y)=[Df(f^{-1}(y))]^{-1}?$$
Maybe my second equation mixes up the notation in a bad way...
But what I'm asking is if we can write the conclusion of the inverse function theorem in terms of the linear map instead of the matrix, and if yes, what would be the correct way.
Or maybe it is correct as written, both of them.
15:59
a matrix just records a linear map w.r.t. some bases, any statement about linear maps can be translated into matrices and vice versa
ok πŸ‘
16:13
@Jakobian you mean like $\delta(x,y)=|tan(\pi x/2)-tan(\pi y/2)|$ for $x,y\in [0,1)$ right?
I was able to show, under the map $\gamma(x)=x$ from $[0,1),|.|$ to $[0,1),\delta$ would be continuous and inverse also continuous
If $f:[0, 1)\to [0, \infty)$ is any given homeomorphism, I mean metric $(x, y)\mapsto |f(x)-f(y)|$ for $x, y\in [0, 1)$
so this is the metric on $[0, 1)$ induced by the one on $[0, \infty)$ via the map $f$
oh so you want it to come from arc tan itself
I don't want arc tan, I don't care which map you use
whats important is that then $[0, 1)$ with this metric becomes isometric to $[0, \infty)$ with Euclidean metric, and so properties like completeness are the same
@Jakobian ok the tan one satisfies this
@Jakobian I see..
If instead of $[0, 1)$ you had any set $X$ whatsoever and $f:X\to [0, \infty)$ was a bijection then you could do the same exact thing to put a metric structure on $X$ isometric with $[0, \infty)$
You can translate structures from one object to another like this
very simple concept that people don't really understand perhaps
you can do this with other types of structures, if $f:X\to\mathbb{R}$ is a bijection, you can make $X$ into a group isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$ for example
well whats important is that here this bijection $f$ is also a homeomorphism so the topology on $[0, 1)$ with Euclidean and the metric induced by $f$ is the same
nothing complicated
this should be automatic, trivial, and obvious
Contemplate on this concept
If you never seen it before
Otherwise don't dwell on it
16:39
this is the first time im seeing this. I kinda get it now. id never thought about this before in this fashion- but the isometry falls rather neatly.
we have $f:\{[0,1),|.| \} \to \{[0,\infty),|.|\}$ a homeomorphism (one example is tan), then $[0,1), \delta(x,y)=|f(x)-f(y)|$ would be isometric to $[0,\infty),|.|$ trivially since $f$ itself would act as that isometry, $|f(x)-f(y)|=\delta(x,y)$ from simply the definition
17:12
I think across a mathematicians education it should be mentioned at least one, its an important concept, despite how trivial it is
i think I understood this thing now clearly. If $(X,d_X)$ is homeomorphic to $(Y,d_Y)$ under the function $f$ then there is another metric $\delta$ on $X$ given by $\delta(x,y)=d_Y(f(x),f(y))$ which would be isometric to $Y,d_Y$. I can just now see how trivial this thing is
and isometries are nicer than homeomorphism
17:45
Hi
17:57
@SineoftheTime Have you studied the application of the Laplace transform applied to differential equations?
@Pizza I took a look at LT on my own a couple of months ago
why?
I was just checking it out
Is it hard? For computation purpouses, I don't think it's that difficult
18:13
Now I'll try to see
Anyone interested in aeronautical engineering? I'm looking for a partner for my nonprofit
Building a human powered aircraft
19:13
$\cancel{x}$
why \cancel is not working?
sine: what is \cancel? i think that mathjax only supports only parts of "normal" latex (and maybe other stuff), but if that comes from some special package the odds of it working in chat probably go down
Maybe I figured it out
@leslietownes It's used to cross out thing see here
but even writing \require{cancel} does not solve the problem
I'm aware that in chat may not work, but even on main it's not working
with \begin{align} now it works
\begin{align}
\require{cancel}
\cancel{x}
\end{align}
Apparently, you have to write \require{cancel} and then skip a line
Sorry for the useless messages :)
oh, my highly subjective and personal take re \cancel would be just to never write that, it looks horrible
although it's mildly interesting/cool that chat lets you load specific packages
19:39
\require{tikzcd} when :(
@BenSteffan I learned pstricks way back. I've never bothered with tikz or anything related to it.
you also don't work in a diagram-heavy field I gather
@BenSteffan Heck, no!
Commutative diagrams are for LOSERS! :P
anyways, MathJax only supports amscd and amscd sucks
and also it's broken in the MathJax v3 beta right now
There are three small commutative diagrams in my thesis. I believe I used xymatrix?
Is that a thing?
19:44
uhh
apparently, but I had to google it
never heard of it before
@XanderHenderson real mathematicians study real analysis
Yeah, much lighter overhead than tikz.
it can do more than amscd, so that's good (although the barrier is rather low)
if all you do is commutative diagrams the tikz overhead is usually manageable, at least if your document doesn't contain upwards of, say, ~100 diagrams
but that's nowadays :)
but yeah the performance of tikz is a pain
I had to externalize all my tikz images in at least one set of lecture notes because of performance reasons
@BenSteffan My thesis was pretty long by the standards of mathematics (around 120 pages). It took a while to compile, and my general preference was to keep it as light as possible. Why load tikz when I am only using it for three diagrams?
F that noise.
@XanderHenderson yeah, especially if the diagrams are simple
fun fact: putting your hand on a hot plate is more fun than setting up externalization to play nice with latexmk
and also externalization does not work out of the box with tikzcd, and I never managed to set it up
That is the most complicated of the three diagrams.
the artifacts on arrows that aren't perfectly horizontal or vertical is something that tikz does a better job at avoiding :^)
but yeah that's fine
@BenSteffan That is an effect of the rasterization on the screen.
It looks better if you have higher resolution / zoom in.
well, maybe those effects vanish, but trust me, it doesn't look any better
19:54
@leslietownes I mean, it is a commutative diagram. Only so much you can do.
@XanderHenderson it is, but I believe the pdf has some say in how the rendering goes
@BenSteffan No idea. What I know is that the dead tree copies I have look fine.
at least I see these artifacts consistently in texts that don't use tikz as opposed to those that don't
yeah, it's digital only
xander it's funny you mention compile time as a consideration, i certainly never designed my documents around that, but i very much remember noticing compile time and sometimes not compiling as often as i would have liked just to avoid the disruption. you should try compiling your thesis today, on your phone, and see if you even notice the compile time
The whole point of LaTeX is to produce a print copy. Who cares how it looks on screen? :P
@leslietownes Heh.
19:56
@XanderHenderson the screen is your printer :)
who can afford paper, who can afford ink, in this economy
@BenSteffan My screen is not made of dead trees.
@BenSteffan I just spent \$80 on a pen. Ink is cheap.
(And that that pen is not the most expensive pen I own.)
(It's pretty average among my pens.)
@leslietownes github.com/bensteffan/algebraic-topology-1-notes-bonn-ws23 pull this, run latexmk and tell me about compile times again :^)
@XanderHenderson If I printed everything I wanted to read I would exceed $80 in ink costs rather quickly
$80 is not that much for a pen, in the grand scheme of things
I'm not in a position to spend that much money on one but if I was I might
@BenSteffan I work at a college, and no one checks how much toner I am using. However, I have a laserjet printer at home which is still on its original toner cartridge and has printed around 7000 pages.
I am conveniently omitting that my uni let's us print for free :)
but even then I think they'd be mad if I walked in to print a copy of higher algebra
A \$100 toner cartridge will, generally speaking, get you somewhere between 5 and 10k pages.
20:03
Printing both bibles of homotopy theory would eat through 2.5k pages alone, so I think my estimate is not unsound
@BenSteffan I don't read math on a screen---it just doesn't work for me. So I either print out or buy anything I want to read.
that's fine
Consider a co-dimension $1$ surface of revolution $L^{n-1}$ and an embedding $e:L^{n-1} \hookrightarrow X^n$ for $X^n=[0,1]^n$ with points $p,q$ elements of $\partial X^n$ where $\partial X^n=X^n-(0,1)^n$ for $\mathrm {sup}~ \mathrm{dist}(p,q)=\sqrt{n}$. Assume $L^{n-1}$ has constant positive sectional curvature. Next replicate this symmetrical manifold, $L^{n-1}$, $2^{n-2}$ additional times. In each replication, the cone points on $L^{n-1}$ align with unique pairs of vertices on the boundary of the $n$-cube. Take the union of all these surfaces - there $2^{n-1}$ total. We'll call this unio
I know one or two people of my generation who are like this, still
but in my field it is a bit impractical
@BenSteffan i feel like every warning i have ever been given about downloading strange things from the internet and running them at home was in preparation for this moment of me not downloading and compiling your algebraic topology notes
20:06
@BenSteffan I think that you are calling me old?
@leslietownes is old...
@leslietownes :)))
you should read the latexmkrc to improve your confidence
So...is it path connected?
@XanderHenderson I'm pretty sure that you're older than, say, 25
no offense but, :)
20:07
@BenSteffan Is that considered "old" now?
have I said "old"? No, I have said that you're not of my generation
i'm old, but also kind of the opposite of xander in this respect. in the 1990s i would sometimes use "did the latex compile" as a substitute for loading a document in a GUI and checking it visually prior to printing
if $S$ is a CW complex and $X/S$ is a CW complex then is it true that $X$ is a CW complex?
When I said "heh." i was not responding to anyone I was simply saying Heh.
for the record
@Derivative no
consider the warsaw circle
20:09
why not?
wrong question
why should this be true?
I think it's a pretty extraordinary claim, so the burden of argument is on you :)
I'm trying to prove that the pushout of a cellular map and a subcomplex inclusion is a CW complex
that seems way harder than my question
then someone told me that one of the steps of the proof is giving a CW complex structure to a quotient
that's something much more concrete than your conjecture
20:11
but then idk where do I go from there
define an explicit CW-structure.
https://chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/66531492#66531492

Any thoughts?
define an explicit CW-structure. :)
In terms of the CW-structures on the constituent spaces of the pushout
@BenSteffan I have CW structures on $X$ and on $Y$ but so far no guarantee that I can glue them together
20:14
I think this is called the connected P conjecture
Hello everyone
@Derivative that's sort of what you're supposed to figure out I suppose (the gluing)
and how "cellular map" and "subcomplex inclusion" help you do this
20:33
I'm looking for a partner and mentor for a human powered aircraft project. I was formerly a software engineer, now I'm studying aeronautics and biomechanics
@Michael So you've already said. Please don't spam the room.
Are some mathematicians interested in objects that are topologically equivalent to a 2-torus, and smoothly non-equivalent to a 2-torus?
I'm trying to wrap my head around that
for example came up with a trivial example - a polygonal torus
So lettuce beef the question up and look at a more a-bun-dance set of examples
20:50
@ModularMindset Nobody is interested in this because no such objects exist :)
the first case of the disagreement between isomorphism in the smooth and topological categories happens in dimension 4
I have read the inverse function theorem in Spivak's Calculus on Manifolds and I have hard time reconciling it with what Folland states in his book on the chapter on the $n$-dimensional Lebesgue measure (see second picture). In particular, why does Folland stipulate that $G$ is injective? Isn't this a consequence of the inverse function theorem (see first picture)? Is Folland using some other inverse function theorem that I am not aware of yet?
@psie If $G$ is not injective it obviously cannot have a global inverse
Folland uses the inverse function theorem that the inverse of $G$, which a priori might not even be continuous, is in fact a $C^1$-diffeo
he is using exactly the statement of the inverse function theorem from the first picture
@BenSteffan really? That's a relief :)
@BenSteffan The context is a surface that is topologically a 2-torus, but it's not diffeomorphic to a 2-torus because it intersects itself and therefore isn't differentiable at places. Are you claiming this doesn't exist?
I don't follow. Something that intersects itself isn't even manifold.
I am saying that any 2-manifold that is homeomorphic to the torus is diffeomorphic to the torus.
In fact, this is still true if you replace "homeomorphic" with "homotopy equivalent"
and I suppose also "diffeomorphic" with "diffeotopy equivalent," if you'd like
21:13
Okay I see
@BenSteffan the inverse function theorem in the picture says that the inverse may only be a $C^1$-diffeomorphism locally. What I still don't quite understand is that we have $G:\Omega\to\mathbb R^n$ and then he concludes that $G^{-1}$ will be a $C^1$ diffeomorphism on the entire $G(\Omega)$. Is that really what the inverse function theorem says?
@psie It is a consequence of the inverse function theorem, yes.
Hint: Being of class $C^1$ is a local property
...I guess that's less of a hint and more of a "giving away the punchline" :)
Ok, hmm.
indeed, differentiable and continuous are local properties, and they imply some sort of global property in this case, is that what you are saying?
I am saying they are local properties, in the sense that a function has property $P$ if it has property $P$ at each point of its domain
ah ok
21:23
$10^\infty=0$. Convince me otherwise.
@TheEmptyStringPhotographer $10^8 = 100000000$. Be a bit more careful with your 8s in the future :)
21:37
@BenSteffan so Folland is applying the inverse function theorem to each point of the domain of $G$ and then the inverse function obtained at each point is kind of "glued together" to a single function $G^{-1}:G(\Omega)\to\Omega$. Maybe gluing is not the appropriate word here.
yeah, kinda
gluing is indeed not the right word but that's the idea
you already have an inverse function
right
the inverse function theorem then tells you that around each point, you find a neighborhood such that the function is $C^1$ there
since this works for every point, and being $C^1$ is a local property, you conclude the inverse as a whole must be of class $C^1$
ah, this makes a lot more sense now
I just realized today that I am working with a stratified space.
My definitions line up with the actual definitions! :)
22:12
@Derivative if $(B,A)$ is a CW-pair and $f\colon A\rightarrow C$ a cellular map, define a filtration on the pushout $C\cup_fB$ via $(C\cup_fB)_k=C_k\cup_{f_k}B_k$ and show that this gives it a CW-structure
more precisely, the cells of $C\cup_fB$ will be the (canonical images of) the cells of $C$ and the cells of $B$ not in $A$
 
1 hour later…
23:14
guys I'm trying to solve this exercise: given a matrix $A \in \mathbb{R}^{m \times n} $ and $\mathbf{b} \in \mathbb{R}^m$ prove that $$g(\mathbf{x}) = \lVert A\mathbf{x}-\mathbf{b} \rVert $$ has an absolute minimum in $\mathbb{R}^n$
@Claudio what is an absolute minimum? A global one?
yea
I've showed that $g$ is convex
In mathematics, the Hilbert projection theorem is a famous result of convex analysis that says that for every vector x {\displaystyle x} in a Hilbert space H {\displaystyle H} and every nonempty closed convex C βŠ† H , {\displaystyle C\subseteq H,} there exists a unique vector m ∈ C {\displaystyle m\in C} for which β€– c βˆ’ x β€–...
should follow from this
ok wait
can't use this
I need help in finding a stationary point for $g$
why not
23:17
@Jakobian can't use something which isn't covered in the course hahaha
I mean I could
but I know how to solve this, I just need to compute the gradient of $g$, but I can't seem to see how as of now
You can try considering $x\mapsto \|Ax-b\|^2 = (Ax-b)\cdot (Ax-b)$ instead
your function is not always differentiable
but its square is
i need to pay attention to matrix products tho
could you expand on these last .two messages
concretely what do you want from me
where do we lose differentiability? :p
where is $x\mapsto \sqrt{x}$ not differentiable
or maybe $x\mapsto |x|$
at $0$ of course
23:21
oh I see so $Ax = b$
that's where you lose differentiability, something that gets fixed with taking squares
you also can use formulas for differential of dot product
If $f(x) = f_1(x)\cdot f_2(x)$ then $f'(x) = f'_1(x)\cdot f_2(x) + f_1(x)\cdot f_2'(x)$
Oh I wanted to expand the dot products instead
thanks for the hints

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