@leslietownes Dood I don't get it. Suppose $a \in (0,1)$ in particular $a = 1-\epsilon$ for some arbitrarily small $\epsilon>0$ then $|a_n - a| = |1 - 1-\epsilon| < \epsilon$ I guess it's not true, unless it were $\leq$
can't I just specify it as a different variable though so I have $|1-1-\delta|<\epsilon$
if $a = 1/2$ then $|a_n - \frac{1}{2}|$ where $a_n \in (-\infty,0]\cup[1,\infty)$ means $\epsilon \geq \frac{1}{2}$ since $|0-1/2| = 1/2$ and $|1-1/2| = 1/2$
like, fill in the blanks. suppose a_n converges to 1/2. putting [blank] in for epsilon in the "epsilon-N" definition of that statement, we would learn that there is a positive integer N such that [blank] for all n >= N. taking n = [blank] we would deduce [blank], which contradicts [blank]
you're circling around the right idea but quantifiers are missing or not filled in. e.g. i don't know what "epsilon >= 1/2" has to do with the definition of the limit. i know it's a symbolic statement that looks kind of different from what i'm used to seeing in the definition of the limit, but it doesn't make any contradiction clear
there's also a big conceptual distinction between applying the definition of the limit in some case to get some result, and working out or intuiting "how large epsilon could be" or whatever while still making something true, which is in general subtler, harder, and not something that working with these definitions regularly calls you to do
good luck
now, infinity-categories. fill in the blanks. if you like infinity-categories, you are a [blank] and should [blank] at the earliest opportunity
there's sometimes ambiguity in textbooks over whether a "series" is the sequence of partial sums, or its limit when it exists and some unspecified other thing when it doesn't, or both, or some other thing, but certainly every series at least has associated with it a sequence of partial sums, even if it isn't literally the same thing
obliv there's the "is the if-then statement true" question which is definitely a no, and then the maybe more fun and flexible question of your favorite counterexamples and what you need to know to prove that it is a counterexample
if you look around a bit you can probably find a series for $\pi$ or $e$ for which the partial sums are rational. Of course, the onus is then on you to show that the series converges to what you found online, and that all its partial sums are rational :)
I was just thinking of using typical definition of rational number and playing with the numerator/denominator such that eventually the integers on the top and bottom are no longer integers or rational numbers
that's kind of garbled though, the goal would be an example where all of the a_n's are literally rational, where you can prove the sequence is convergent, and that the limit is not rational
this sounds like reducing the problem to itself. if the numerator or denominator becomes irrational in the limit, then the numerator itself is an example of the kind of sequence you're looking for
that's true, you could give a nonconstructive proof based on cardinality if baked into what you know about R is the fact that any element of R is a limit of rational numbers
in a classroom environment, all of these premises tend to arrive at around the same time or nearly the same time, so it's not clear what you personally can take for granted
so maybe start there - in the world of things you know, what numbers do you know are provably not rational, and how are they defined
obliv there's also the question of, are you doing this as part of an organized course of study where you can clearly delineate between what you "already know"/"can use" and what you don't, or is this problem just bubbling up out of the void
which used to be relatively rare but now seems to be the more common way that people encounter stuff, at least on main and maybe also in this chat
It's from an intro to real analysis course at my school but I don't think there's an issue of 'what I know' because I don't know very much when it comes to real analysis to begin with.
So anything you tell me, I'm learning in real time lol. The professor is very good at explaining things though so I'm kicking myself for missing two lectures shrug
if you know that sqrt(2) is irrational, a_n defined by a_1 = [arbitrary positive number] and a_{n+1} = (1/2) (a_n + 2/a_n) can be fairly easily proved to be a sequence of rational numbers, and slightly less easily proved to be convergent (it is eventually monotone). if you take for granted that it's convergent, algebra with "limit laws" shows you that its limit is sqrt(2)
There is no reason you can't be creative in mathematics though, alot of times stupidly obvious questions have stupidly obvious solutions.
If someone askes such a silly question as a sequence of rational numbers that converge to an irrational one, no one is stop you from defining a sequence $a_n =$ the first n terms of root 2, each number is rational and the limit is obviously root 2.
you dont always need to find the hard answer to things
well, there is something to think about here to give an answer like that you need to first introduce rational and then real numbers, and then digital expansions
how silly a question is depends on what tools do we have
i mean all you need for that is what is a rational or irrational number, if hes not allowed to use that shouldnt be asking a question requiring its definition to be used
@BenSteffan One might want to still prove that its unique with that definition. But if we aren't even proving that it exists at all then I guess one can skip that too