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00:03
@jasmine If $a'\in \mathfrak{m}$, that doesn't necessarily mean $a'\in \mathfrak{m}^3$. It's $\mathfrak{m}^3\subseteq \mathfrak{m}$ that's true, not necessarily the other way around
 
1 hour later…
01:20
@XanderHenderson Yes I have constructed a space that is isometric to $[0,\infty)$
@zetaspace Okay... so what?
@XanderHenderson Give me a second to collect my thoughts before I answer that
@zetaspace I mean, I asked my first question four hours ago... you're clearly not in a hurry.
02:23
@XanderHenderson those are fair points. I have read spivak, and Bartle before, but they're just calculus books. I find rudin convenient because it aligns with the way I learn from books. Since rudin is theoretically self contained, I apply the 'moore method's when going through his book, i e, every theorem after the axioms / definitions are problems. Takes a lot of time but I enjoy it
But jakobian is correct in that rudin only sets out to get done what he would need to in his book, no more no less.
@nickbros123 I don't know what is meant by "just calculus" books. There is a whole spectrum running from the AP and A-level calculus texts used in the US and the UK, through college level books like Thomas and Stewart, up through Spivak and Apostal, and to Rudin and his ilk. Any line you draw between books is kind of arbitrary, and a lot of what makes a book a "calculus" text vs an "analysis" text is going to come down to how it is used in an instructional setting.
@XanderHenderson i differentiate them by metric space vs Reals, that's it. Other than that both spivak and Bartle are very rigorous, and all that
That is not the Moore Method.
I would call them intro analysis texts but some may argue that "intro analysis" is actually rudin
@user20458579510081670432 how so?
Moore used the Socratic method.
02:32
@user20458579510081670432 "..the students are given a list of definitions and, based on these, theorems which they are to prove and present in class, leading them through the subject material.." from Wikipedia ; isn't this what I said
@nickbros123 That seems pretty arbitrary. Particularly since many analysis texts don't deal with more abstract metric spaces.
What you described was independent study.
@user20458579510081670432 I didn't really agree. At the heart of the Socratic method is the idea that the leader (eg the teacher) didn't know truth any better than anyone what, and truth is arrived at through questioning.
Discovery methods, like Moore (but we are supposed to pretend that Moore did't exist, because he was a horrible racist, even for his time), don't suppose that the instructor is ignorant, but rather that the instructor can guide students to figuring out truth with minimal prompting.
They look similar, but are philosophically distinct.
Arg.. mobile!
02:49
hi and drunk call that HD vision
Do not let that influence your views on what I say next
your teachers probably didn't tell you this but if you change the underlying geometry of the Schwartz space $\mathcal S(\Bbb R^n)$ you effectively have a recipe to build a curved zeta function
cancel mob is probably gonna come after me now
03:41
@XanderHenderson Lovecraft established a whole genre of horror stories and he's being remembered, in spite being a horrible racist
I mean what next, we pretend Hitler didn't exist
@Jakobian Yes, and his name has been removed from awards, and the World Fantasy Award is no longer a Lovecraft bust.
And, arguably, Moore didn't really invent the method---he was just a popularizer and famous proponent.
That being said, I don't feel strongly about it, but I am tired of having the fight with colleagues. The dude was a racist, and it doesn't seem worth the effort to argue that we should keep his name around when he didn't really do much to contribute to anything.
His name still exists in such things as the Moore-Smith generalized sequences for example
The number of PhDs he supervised lives on.
and I doubt anyone even knows who the guy was, just like I don't know who, I don't know, Bolzano was
@Jakobian Sure, and I don't think that anyone is seriously arguing that his name be removed from that.
Anyway, like I said, I don't have strong opinions. But I have become weary of having the conversation with colleagues, who all tell me that I am a terrible person for calling anything the "Moore method". I don't really care if someone else uses the term, but if they do, they are going to eventually start running into people who will suggest other terms (e.g. "discovery based learning", "inquirey based learning", etc).
This is a case where there is a term with bad connotations, and there are replacements which are (a) more descriptive, and (b) don't carry those connotations. So... I find it easier to just use those other terms.
03:52
It should be okay to use a name, no matter how horrible the person might have been. For example, if Hitler invented some method of learning, we should call it the "Hitler method" if that's the common name for it
That's what I think
@user20458579510081670432 yes?
@Jakobian I'm not trying to convince you of anything, and I don't really care what you call a thing. I am reporting to you the experience I have had as an educator. Once you have been to a bunch of conferences from mathematics educators, and have gotten into multiple discussions about Moore, you may feel differently.
If you want to die on the hill of "I'll call a thing whatever the hell I want to call it!", be my guest. I, personally, don't think it is a hill worth dying on. I'd rather get on with the business of educating students.
If you assume that a) erasing history is bad practice and b) one should try to be consistent, then it should imply that one should try to use names which are most commonly attributed to someone, irrelevant of who that person was
@Jakobian (a) No one said anything about erasing history. One can remove a person's name from a thing without erasing history. Though if you understand history, you will come to recognize that what Moore was doing was not really all that radical, and lots of other people were doing similar kinds of things.
Stigler's law of eponymy, proposed by University of Chicago statistics professor Stephen Stigler in his 1980 publication "Stigler's law of eponymy", states that no scientific discovery is named after its original discoverer. Examples include Hubble's law, which was derived by Georges Lemaître two years before Edwin Hubble; the Pythagorean theorem, which was known to Babylonian mathematicians before Pythagoras; and Halley's Comet, which was observed by astronomers since at least 240 BC (although its official designation is due to the first ever mathematical prediction of such astronomical phenomenon...
03:57
Did you have any discussions about Moore at your last mathed conference? @XanderHenderson
@user20458579510081670432 Yes.
Okay this has not much to do with erasing history
@Jakobian (b) I generally think that it is better to name theorems according to what they do, rather than after some person. Give theorems descriptive names. The "extreme value theorem" is a good example. "Fermat's theorem" is a bad example (though "Fermat's theorem on stationary points" is a slight improvement). There is not need to memorize an arbitrary name if the name of the theorem explains what the theorem does.
Similarly, there are perfectly good words already in the language to replace "Moore's method" (e.g. "inquiry based learning" or "IBL"). IBL is well understood by most mathematics educators, and is more descriptive for people who are just learning to teach. Win-win.
Okay yeah, maybe my take was terrible
I mean it was, not maybe
I doubt physics will conform by renaming Newton's laws.
04:04
@Jakobian I didn't say that. I just said that I really don't care all that much in my own life, and I am tired of having the conversation with other math ed people. In general, it is a lot easier to just say IBL, and avoid having a long conversation about what a horrible racist, misogynist, and anti-semite Moore was. (Go Longhorns!)
@user20458579510081670432 Newton was a right bastard. Just ask Leibniz.
Anywho, it is after 9. I should have gone to bed an hour ago---8am class tomorrow! Yay! Toodles.
Yes, and he admitted on his death bed that his greatest accomplishment was dying a virgin.
Cya.
@user20458579510081670432 Newton?
They were thinking about it differently back then
Let's suppose we have an open cover for a metric space that is separable (which is equivalent to saying it has a countable basis), I am unable to convince myself that the open cover must have a countable subcover.
Say $\{ G_a: a \in A\}$ is the open cover. I understand each element $G_a$ can be written as the union of a subcollection of the basis, which is countable. But since the power set of natural numbers is uncountable, and though each $G_a$ is the union of an utmost countable subcollection, it seems like it could potentially be uncountable? I need help here
04:12
@nickbros123 Take a countable basis $\{U_n : n\in\mathbb{N}\}$ and consider $P = \{n\in\mathbb{N} : \exists_{a\in A} U_n\subseteq G_a\}$
If $x\in X$ then there exists $a\in A$ with $x\in G_a$ and then from definition of a basis $n\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $x\in U_n\subseteq G_a$. So $U_n$ for $n\in P$ cover $X$
Next for each $n\in P$ choose $a(n)\in A$ such that $U_n\subseteq G_{a(n)}$
Then $\{G_{a(n)} : n\in P\}$ is a countable cover of $X$, and clearly a subcover of $\{G_a : a\in A\}$
Or, if you prefer, letting $A_0 = \{a(n) : n\in P\}$, we have that $\{G_a : a\in A_0\}$ is a subcover of $\{G_a : a\in A\}$
oh, right. this makes sense, thanks
 
2 hours later…
06:10
this should be deleted despite its score. I know the suitable chatroom for this is CURED but there are too few users , so I try it here.
 
4 hours later…
09:50
Hi👋
11:08
Given the surface $S$ of equation $z=2x+3y$, for $x^2 + y^2 \leq 1$, calculate the rotor flux of the vector field $F(x,y,z) = (y ,z,-x)$ through $S$
I have a question, but after I calculated the rotor , can I calculate the flux using the formula for the explicit form z = f(x,y)?
$\Phi = \iint_{S} \mathbf{F}(x, y, f(x, y)) \cdot \left( -\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}, -\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}, 1 \right) \, dx \, dy$
I think I'm wrong because continuing like this i will bypasses the need for the rotor calculation
I think I should use Stokes' theorem
so I think I have to parameterize the surface
the surface is a plane right
Yes
so it's easy to find the normal vector
11:24
I didn't understand if I can also not express the surface in parametric form
Now I should have an explicit form z = g(x,y)?
Mm wait
$\mathbf{n} = \left( -\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}, -\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}, 1 \right)$
@Pizza from linear algebra, what is the normal vector of the plane $ax+by+cz+d=0$?
@Pizza yes you can, but I don't understand why you would do it
@SineoftheTime $\mathbf{n} = (a,b,c)$?
@SineoftheTime I'm getting confused with the things I'm reading
to compute the flux, you $n$ have to be a unit vector?
@Pizza what is confusing you?
11:36
Maybe I'm thinking the method to calculate the direct flux of the vector field, not its rotor
@SineoftheTime yes
what do you mean by rotor flux?
in italian: calcolare il flusso del rotore del campo vettoriale
I have to do this
did you compute the rotor of $\mathbf F$?
Yes
what do you get?
11:42
(-1,1,-1)
I'm stuck here, I don't know what to do next
or at least, I think I have to parameterize the surface
how did your professor define the flux of a vector field $\mathbf G$?
@SineoftheTime It should be $\iint_S \mathbf{G} \cdot d\mathbf{S}$
ok, did you see you can express the flux using the normal unit vector?
Yes, maybe I understood
wait
Sorry
$$\iint_{S} \mathbf{G} \cdot \mathbf{n} \, dS,
\mathbf{n} = \frac{\frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial u} \times \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial v}}{\left|\frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial u} \times \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial v}\right|}
dS = \left|\frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial u} \times \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial v}\right| \, du dv$$
11:58
I'm not understanding
just apply the definition of flux to $\operatorname{rot} \mathbf F$
if you're struggling to find the normal unit vector, then parametrize
but you can find immediately $n$
@SineoftheTime $\iint_{S} (\operatorname{rot} \mathbf{F}) \cdot \mathbf{n} \, dS$
ok, did you find $n$?
r(x,y) = (x,y, 2x + 3y), I have to calculate the tangent vectors
$\mathbf{n} = (-2,-3,1)$
ok, you told me $n$ must be a unit vector so you have to normalize
Yes
$$\| \mathbf{n} \| = \sqrt{(-2)^2 + (-3)^2 + 1^2} = \sqrt{4 + 9 + 1} = \sqrt{14} \\
\mathbf{n} = \left( \frac{-2}{\sqrt{14}}, \frac{-3}{\sqrt{14}}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{14}} \right)$$
12:09
ok
now plug in
The scalar product is -2/√14
ok, I'm not checking the computation
Now you're left with the surface integral
@SineoftheTime $-2 \iint_D dxdy$
are you able to compute it?
I can use polar coordinates
12:21
you can
$\int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{1} -2 \cdot r \, dr \, d\theta = -2\pi$
But then
$\Phi = \iint_{S} \mathbf{F}(x, y, f(x, y)) \cdot \left( -\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}, -\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}, 1 \right) \, dx \, dy$
Could I replace this F here with rot F?
isn't the flux a surface integral?
Yes
why instead of $z$ you put $f(x,y)$?
it's not clear what are you doing here
maybe I understood
you parametrize already
I saw this on the internet, maybe I misunderstood?
12:30
If you know how to solve surface integrals, you don't need other formulas
I was reading this
yes, this works
$\mathbf{n} = \left( -\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}, -\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}, 1 \right)$
but $dS = \sqrt{\left( \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} \right)^2 + \left( \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} \right)^2 + 1} \, dx \, dy$
yes
but $\|n \|=\sqrt{f_x^2+f_y^2+1}$
so you're left with $n\,dx\,dy$
$\int_{S} f \, dS = \iint_{D} f(x, y, g(x, y)) \sqrt{1 + g_x^2 + g_y^2} \, dx \, dy$
the rotor F, Do I have to replace it here?
I do not understand
instead of F you put rot F
@Pizza here
$\iint_{D} (\operatorname{rot} \mathbf{F}) \sqrt{1 + g_x^2 + g_y^2} \, dx \, dy$
I mean something like this
no
this does not make sense
if you want to solve the ex using the formula you sent before, replace F with rot F
Yes, you mean the second formula, right?
14 mins ago, by Pizza
user image
$\iint_{D} f(x, y, g(x, y)) \sqrt{1 + g_x^2 + g_y^2} \, dx \, dy$, wouldn't this be it?
Maybe I'm not understanding, but is this formula not right?
this is the definition of surface integral over the surface defined by z=g(x,y)
yes
in your case, $f=\operatorname{rot} F\cdot n$
and g is the equation of the plane
Aaah ok
In the end it's always the same thing
@SineoftheTime So it would be: $\Phi = \iint_{D} \left( \operatorname{rot} \mathbf{F} \cdot \mathbf{n} \right) \sqrt{1 + \left(\frac{\partial g}{\partial x}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{\partial g}{\partial y}\right)^2} \, dx \, dy$
yes but you can simplify it
note that $\operatorname{rot}F\cdot n$ have to be evaluated at $(x,y,g(x,y))$
@SineoftheTime $$\Phi = \iint_{D} \left[ \operatorname{rot} \mathbf{F}(x, y, g(x, y)) \cdot \left( -\frac{\partial g}{\partial x}, -\frac{\partial g}{\partial y}, 1 \right) \right] \\ \sqrt{1 + \left(\frac{\partial g}{\partial x}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{\partial g}{\partial y}\right)^2} \, dx \, dy$$
note that $n$ is a unit vector
so $\sqrt{1+g_x^2+g_y^2}$ simplify
13:09
Amazon delivered a wrong book to me, what's funny is that the book they send is called Authentic Business
$$\Phi = \iint_{D} \left[ \operatorname{rot} \mathbf{F}(x, y, g(x, y)) \cdot \left( -\frac{\partial g}{\partial x}, -\frac{\partial g}{\partial y}, 1 \right) \right]\, dx \, dy$$
@SoumikMukherjee never happened to me
That would be it, right?
@SineoftheTime this is the first time that such a thing happened to me
13:16
Thank you so much for your help, sorry I took up your time
other doubts?
@SineoftheTime But now then: $\left( -\frac{\partial g}{\partial x}, -\frac{\partial g}{\partial y}, 1 \right) = (-2,-3,1)$
what's the problem?
shouldn't i use ||n|| too?
as I said before, it simplifies
13:32
@SineoftheTime But can I always write this formula like this?
$\Phi=\iint_D F(x,y,f(x,y))\cdot (-f_x,-f_y,1) \, dxdy$ ? Yes
Yes
you can and you prove it
Oh ok, thank you very much!
I will try to do other exercises
@Pizza just to be clear: you can use it when the surface is of the form $z=g(x,y)$
@Pizza np
13:49
@SineoftheTime Yes
It depends on the form of the surface that the exercise gives me
yes
there are tons of formulas for the different parametrisation for surface integrals, I remembre only the definition
14:21
Yay! It only took 45 minutes to respond to all of the email which arrived after 3pm yesterday! X(
@XanderHenderson moving them to trash is faster
14:53
Hi Sine of the the Time
@SineoftheTime Yes, but I work in a state which does not have tenure for community college instructors, and a strong Republican right-to-work political philosophy. I can't really ignore work-related email.
Xander, as a faculty, have you ever encountered students cheating using AI?
like ChatGPT and all. It's so bad at math that I doubt if anyone would use it. I'm still curious.
15:09
They say that it's bound to get better with more data.
The google AI is said to be able to solve some IMO geometry problems in minutes
Gemini is the name of the AI model I believe
Wait. Not even minutes -- 19 seconds to solve one geometry question from this year's IMO.
15:18
Today Geometry, tomorrow the World.
who knows....
That's impressive speed.
And it will get faster and faster...
well, it did fail to solve 2 other problems and took 3 days..
Sure, data is the bottle-neck.
15:22
Is it possible to upload an image from phone?
@SineoftheTime yes
lol
@Jakobian Is this a childhood picture of Jeff Bezos?
15:30
Spain without S
when I was younger it used to air on tv
Do you still watch reruns @Jakobian
@user20458579510081670432 where do they air
Also I've noticed there must have been an update with firefox since they display me a preview of a tab when hovering over it
this isn't really useful as I keep usually < 5 tabs at a time
but I see how it can be useful for someone disorganized
15:45
Perhaps you could find them on YouTube.
I have a question, if there exists a function $f$ such that $df = \omega$ , then $\omega$ is conservative?
it would be the definition of exact form
as far as I know, the term "conservative" is used for vector fields and not differential forms
16:00
I was Reading this
We say that a differential form $\omega$ in $A \subseteq \mathbb{R}^2$, $$ \omega = a(\cdot) \, dx + b(\cdot) \, dy, $$is said to be exact (or that the field is conservative) if there exists $f \in C^1(A)$ such that $$ df = \omega \Leftrightarrow \begin{cases} f_x = a(x,y) = X(x,y), \\ f_y = b(x,y) = Y(x,y) \end{cases} $$This function $f$ is called primitive (or potential of the vector field).
what's the question?
@SineoftheTime For now I was trying to do this: Establish for which values of the parameters $\alpha$ and $\beta$ the vector field $$\omega(x,y,z) = \left(\alpha x \ln(z), 3y^2 z, \frac{\beta x^2}{z} + y^3\right)$$ is conservative and finding a potential.
do you have an idea on how to procede?
@SineoftheTime i think i need to determine if exist a scalar function $U(x,y,z)$ such that $\omega = \nabla U$
do you know the relation between closed and exact forms?
16:17
@SineoftheTime Every exact form is also closed. , not all closed forms are exact
closed -> exact, unless the space is simply connected
right
is the domain simply connected?
Mm no?
why?
what is the domain?
$D = \{ (x, y, z) \in \mathbb{R}^3 \mid z > 0 \}$
why is it not simply connected?
16:25
The z=0 plane is excluded
I had read that $\Bbb R^2$ without a point is simply not connected, while the entire plane is.
But I remember that if there were no holes it is simply connected
So maybe here it is
@Pizza this works in $\mathbb R^2$
oh ok
Ah, now I remember you told me this thing
consider a closed curve in $\{z>0\}$, can you continuously shrink it into a point while remaining in the domain?
16:32
Yes
can you proceed?
@SineoftheTime Yes, I found that the derivatives are equal only if $\alpha = 2\beta$
thank you very much, I'll try to continue on my own
17:09
@Pizza I think you should write 'not simply connected' instead of 'simply not connected'
@SoumikMukherjee yes indeed
@SineoftheTime But since the definition set is simply connected, to verify that the field is conservative, I have to calculate the curl?
Indeed. "Not (simply connected)" is very different from "(Simply not) connected" or "Simply (not connected)".
@XanderHenderson yes... next time I'll be more careful about what I write
17:27
in I BC, Diodorus Siculus wrote in the first book of his library that the Egyptians were the inventors not only of writing but also of geometry
the problem of calculating the area of ​​a surface, which continually recurred in practice, was mastered well. The area A of a rectangular surface with sides a and b was calculated according to the formula A=a×b; that of a trapezoid with bases b, b´ and height h by the formula A=[(b+b´)/2]×h.
It was also possible to calculate the lengths of the sides of a rectangle from the area, if their mutual proportion was known. The area of ​​the right triangle with orthogonal sides a and b was obtained with the formula A=(a/2)×b and also in this case, once the area was known, it was possible to identify the length of the sides if their mutual relationship was known . In particular, triangle calculations also recurred in problems involving pyramids.
18:29
Exactly how much time is left for the election to be over?
It says 1 hour but that may not be the exact time
18:48
@Jakobian I don't know if you are still interested (otherwise just ignore), but I think the authors of the text are correct in claiming that $T=[-b,b]^n$ is totally bounded by balls of the form $B(\varepsilon j,\varepsilon)$, where $j$ ranges over $\mathbb Z^n$, provided we equip $\mathbb R^n$ with the max metric. What I still fail to grasp is the condition $\varepsilon|j_i|\leq 2b$.
Here's my attempt at deriving it:
If $\varepsilon>b$, then we can simply take $B(0,\varepsilon)=(-\varepsilon,\varepsilon)^n$ and this will contain $T$ and clearly satisfy the condition.
For $\varepsilon\leq b$, observe that any point $x\in \mathbb R^n$ will be a distance less than $1$ from an integral lattice point. Consequently, any point in $\mathbb R^n$ is less than a distance $\varepsilon$ from $\varepsilon j$ for some $j\in\mathbb Z^n$. In particular, each $t\in T$ belongs to some ball $B(\varepsilon j,\varepsilon)$ as $j$ ranges in $\mathbb Z^n$. We want to pick only those $j$ such that $B(\varepsilon j,\varepsilon)\cap T\neq\varnothing$.
Let $x\in\mathbb R^n$ be such that $\varepsilon x$ is in $T$ and in $B(\varepsilon j,\varepsilon)$ for some $j\in\mathbb Z^n$, then \begin{align*} \varepsilon x\in [-b,b]^n\land d(\varepsilon x,\varepsilon j)<\varepsilon &\iff \forall i(-b\leq \varepsilon x_i\leq b \land |x_i-j_i|<1) \\ &\iff \forall i(-b/\varepsilon\leq x_i\leq b/\varepsilon\land j_i-1<x_i<j_i+1) \\ \end{align*}
Now, the last statement will be true when $-b/\epsilon < j_i+1$ and $j_i-1 < b/\epsilon$ for all $i$, since we are looking for the occurrence when $(j_i-1,j_i+1)$ contains points of $[-b/\varepsilon,b/\varepsilon]$. Now $-b/\varepsilon < j_i+1$ and $j_i-1 < b/\epsilon$ is equivalent to $\epsilon |j_i|<\varepsilon+b$, and since we had $\varepsilon\leq b$, we get the desired condition, but with strict inequality.
@psie the words kind of didn't come in the right order here. What I meant here of course is that $T$ is totally bounded by balls of the form $B(\varepsilon j,\varepsilon)$ with $j\in\mathbb Z^n$ satisfying $\varepsilon|j_i|\leq 2b$.
@Pizza the question asking for which values of the parameters the vector field is conservative. Since conservative vector fields are irrotational, you could compute the curl and set it equal to $0$
Which is the same as proving the form is closed
It's just a different terminology
But usually physicist use vector fields and mathematicians use differential forms
Oh ok thank you very much, one last thing
I can't continue now
@Pizza ok, if it's quick
Yes its quick
it told me that for these values of alpha and beta I had to calculate the work along the curve x^2+2y^=1
But
Since F is conservative and the path is closed then the work is 0
I don't have to do the calculations, I think
19:06
The curve is in the plane or in the space?
$x^2 + 2y^2 = 1$ Sorry
@SineoftheTime Plane
But the vector filed is in the space
It doesn't actually specify where this curve is
Don't you have a condition on z?
It says for these values of $\alpha$ and $\beta$ calculate the work done by $\omega$ along the curve $x^2+2y^2=1$
@SineoftheTime mm no
19:11
This is a surface
@SineoftheTime So z can take any value ?
@SineoftheTime Ok then now I'll look better at what to do. Thank you very much
19:27
When distribution theory goes too hard
@SoumikMukherjee 23 minutes
Is it correct to say that a cone is kind of extending a commutative diagram? We have vertices F(a), F(b),... etc, edges F(f), F(g),... etc.(F is a functor from A to B). Now a cone means we have an object c in B and morphisms phi_k from c to F(k) for all k's such that the diagram is commutative. So we are kinda extending the original diagram of the functor F
@Jakobian ooh, thanks
@psie this is one of the things I was asking for as well. Either change of balls, or maximum metric
19:46
ok, well, provided we use the maximum metric, I get the condition $\varepsilon |j_i|<2b$ instead of $\varepsilon |j_i|\leq 2b$, so slightly "better" than the authors I guess
I think letting $\varepsilon |j_i|$ equal $2b$ we simply get a couple of more balls in the collection of balls that cover $T$, so I don't see any problem
@psie what do you mean here by "last statement will be true". Which statement
@Jakobian I mean that $ \forall i(-b/\varepsilon\leq x_i\leq b/\varepsilon\land j_i-1<x_i<j_i+1)$ will be true if $-b/\varepsilon < j_i+1$ and $j_i-1 < b/\varepsilon$ for all $i$.
What I did here was that I wrote the interval $(j_i-1,j_i+1)$ next to the interval $[-b/\varepsilon,b/\varepsilon]$ and asked myself when will the former contain points of the latter.
I don't think so
Okay I see what you did but that's totally not what you wrote
You want to write that this implies $-b/\varepsilon < j_i+1$ and $j_i-1 < b/\varepsilon$ will imply $T\cap B(\varepsilon j, \varepsilon) \neq \emptyset$
you're right, I messed up in thinking too hard
But okay, if $\varepsilon |j|\leq 2b$ will imply $T\cap B(\varepsilon j, \varepsilon) \neq \emptyset$ is what you've shown, even though I didn't check that argument
how exactly does that imply that $B(\varepsilon j, \varepsilon)$ with $\varepsilon |j|\leq 2b$ cover $T$
@psie you see what's my problem?
19:59
@Jakobian well, first of all, I showed $\varepsilon |j_i|<2b$ implies $T\cap B(\varepsilon j, \varepsilon) \neq \varnothing$ (note the strict inequality). And since I remarked that every point of $T$ belongs to some ball $B(\varepsilon j, \varepsilon)$ for $j\in\mathbb Z^n$, we found all $j$'s through $\varepsilon |j_i|<2b$ such that the union of $B(\varepsilon j, \varepsilon) $ have to contain all points of $T$, no?
@psie this is where I made the remark
So the result is #Shaun" # Candidate 1
"FShrike" # Candidate 2
"jasmine" # Candidate 3
"D.W." # Candidate 4
"mick" # Candidate 5
"Tyma Gaidash" # Candidate 6
"Robert Frost" # Candidate 7
Joe
Joe
Hmmmm I can't seem to access the detailed results on Mac. Does anyone have a screenshot they could share?
20:54
@Pizza Did you manage to solve the exercise?
@psie no
@Jakobian well, there are no other balls that contain points of $T$, and the balls cover even $\mathbb R^n$
"there are no other balls that contain points of $T$"
this is a different claim
and it's not the thing you're proving
@psie well perhaps you did mean that, since "last statement will be true when" could mean an equivalence
although you shouldn't use such unclear language
"last statement will be true exactly/precisely when" would be better
ok, I will amend it, good point
but of course it's not even the last statement but $T\cap B(\varepsilon j, \varepsilon)\neq \emptyset$
@psie but here you're still saying that this implies something
so again, the reasoning is wrong
21:08
@Jakobian the way I have written it now in my notes is the following:
You want your set of conditions to imply the intersection is non-empty
"Now, contemplating the last statement, the interval $(j_i-1,j_i+1)$ will not contain points of $[-b/\varepsilon,b/\varepsilon]$ if $-b/\varepsilon \geq j_i+1$ or $j_i-1 \geq b/\varepsilon$. So, negating that, ..."
yeah doesn't matter I'm over that
I'm talking about something else
ok, I think I see what you mean, my logic is flawed
You want a condition that would imply $\varepsilon |j_i| < \varepsilon + b$ for all $i$
but what you've shown is the opposite implication
no sorry the other way around
you want a condition that would be implied by $\varepsilon |j_i| < \varepsilon + b$ for all $i$
I mean why not just take this condition as it is
there's finite amount of such $j_i$, everything works out
of course, it's not as good as the claimed one, but it's still fine
to have the claimed one I suspect the adjustment would be to use that for any $x\in\mathbb{R}^n$ there is $j\in\mathbb{Z}^n$ such that $\|x-j\|_\infty \leq \frac{1}{2}$ instead
and then it would indeed be visible that the claimed bound is actually kinda sharp
of course I didn't check it but I suspect this is what went wrong
21:31
hmm, ok, you have a point. If we go with $\|x-j\|_\infty \leq \frac12$, then according to my computations we'll end up with the inequalities $-b/\varepsilon < j_i+\frac12$ and $j_i-\frac12 < b/\varepsilon$, i.e. $|j_i|<b/\varepsilon +\frac12\iff \varepsilon |j_i|<b +\frac{\varepsilon}{2}\leq 1.5b$. I don't see though how $\varepsilon |j_i| \leq 2b$ is sharper than $\varepsilon |j_i| < 2b$.
@psie if we shorten the radius of the balls at least
@psie you didn't get $\varepsilon |j_i| < 2b$, you got $\varepsilon |j_i| < \varepsilon + b$
@psie here $b\leq \varepsilon$ so that still doesn't get you to the goal
Note that $2b < \varepsilon + b$ so your result is weaker
no sorry what am I talking about
$\varepsilon \leq b$ by assumption
yeah, first I considered $\varepsilon>b$. This case is trivial. Then I considered $\varepsilon\leq b$ and got $\varepsilon |j_i| < \varepsilon + b$ as you say, but since $\varepsilon\leq b$, we get $\varepsilon|j_i|< 2b$
yeah, I was wrong
21:47
but the thing is, $\varepsilon|j_i|\leq 2b$ isn't wrong at least, but so isn't $\varepsilon|j_i|< 2b$ it seems. It's like you say, it's just a bit sharper.
yeah
and if we really wanted the sharpness we could have used $\varepsilon + b$ instead of $2b$
indeed
yeah, that was a horrible mistake, and I was pretty convinced of being right too
apologies
no worries
 
1 hour later…
23:17
This func. eq has character $$f(x_1^{a_1}x_2^{a_2}\cdot\cdot\cdot x_n^{a_n}) = \prod_{k=1}^n f(x_k)^{\frac{1}{a_k}} $$
Only zeta space and Xander are left

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