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00:05
jam: where do you get your expectation that the quotient ring would be isomorphic (as a ring) to ZxZxZ?
 
2 hours later…
01:41
jam: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1065495/… indicates that Z[x]/(x^2 - 1) has no nontrivial idempotents (suggesting that it is not isomorphic as a ring to Z x Z, which has nontrivial idempotents like (1,0) and (0,1))
I love beige, bland food....
02:02
@冥王Hades sucks to be you. :P
Personally, I often like food that is so hot, it still hurts a day or two later.
On the other have, you might really enjoy the typical American Thanksgiving meal. Lots of beige.
I like chicken (the good kind) and Euler characterstics
@XanderHenderson Yes I do, it's probably my favorite time of the year actually.
Though I tend to add more flavors. Paprika in the gravy, garlic and herbs in the potatoes, pineapple and maple syrup in the yams, etc.
02:05
A lot of bland meat, mashed potatoes, the whole 9 yards
does bland mean lack of taste?
Not necessarily
lack of flaovr?
Thanksgiving is, honestly, the only holiday I really celebrate in a year.
And I get to do it twice this year!
@zetaspace Fundamentally, yes.
thanksgiving is nice
02:06
I like cranberry sauce too
I don't like the meal very much
But also lack of texture. Lack of anything particularly interesting.
@冥王Hades I make a killer cranberry sauce.
Lots of orange zest, and ginger.
Also the pumpkin pie, though I usually have little room left for dessert after devouring a turkey
And I made a really good blue corn bread last year. It was cheesy and spicy (I put in a healthy amount of cayenne).
@冥王Hades pecan > pumpkin
But pumpkin is still good. Maybe my fourth or fifth favorite pie.
Yeah I've had pecan pie as well, pretty good.
02:09
I won't be able to fit in my favorite pair of pants after thanksgiving
And I eat a lot of pies, all year long. Pie is the best. Cake is garbage.
cake on thanksgiving is not right
@XanderHenderson The best cake on earth > The best pie on earth
Cake at any time is not right.
@冥王Hades WRONG!
Cake is garbage.
what about strawberry rubarb pie hades?
02:11
@zetaspace Never tried that
@zetaspace That's a good pie.
Blueberry pie with coffee ice cream.
@XanderHenderson Have you ever seen one of those ludicrous wedding cakes that are taller than most people?
Grapefruit merengue pie.
@冥王Hades those are generally terrible.
They spend a lot of time going stale while people decorate them.
Yeah those are pretty stupid and taste terrible, but hey, good cake is good cake
And they have to be sturdy enough to be structural, which generally makes then less good to eat.
02:13
They're liked failed ice creams.
But even the best cakes are still awful.
Of course the best pie is, by a long shot, chocolate pie.
@冥王Hades Meh. Chocolate pies are okay, but they tend to be a little rich for my taste.
Of course, rich pies are for rich people such as myself.
You can have them.
Have you ever had chess pie?
02:17
blackberry pie with real ripe black berries
@zetaspace I made a pie last week with berries I picked myself. Wild blackberries. So good.
@XanderHenderson Yes actually, back when I was in Texas
@冥王Hades but I thought you were rich? Chess pie is a Depression Era pie for poor people.
:P
@XanderHenderson Nice one. But it did taste nice. No reason rich folks can't enjoy "poor man's food"
I eat carrots, poor man's apple.
@冥王Hades haha!
Carrot cake is almost acceptable. It can be an honorary pie.
02:25
@XanderHenderson My girlfriend used to love that.
Still miss her
Me too
I miss carrot cake
me mother used to make for us as kids
we were poor - sometimes the cake was missing the carrots
we lived in a shoebox on the side of the road
02:44
jam: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2830085/… in qiaochu yuan's answer gives conditions on the ring R and positive integer n under which R[x]/(x^n - 1) will necessarily be isomorphic to R^n, suggesting at least some basis for an idea that this ought to be the case in general. but the answer also notes (in comments) that these rings are not isomorphic in the case R = Z and n = 2
03:17
Could a specific 2x2 matrix filled with 4 integers be useful as a parameter anywhere in higher math or physics?
Awhile ago I stumbled on a sort of potential coincidence which after four years of searching I think mustn't be developing in the way I originally thought it might and perhaps instead the entire set of four numbers must be the interesting component
 
8 hours later…
11:51
If I have a cyclic group $G= \langle a \rangle:= \{a^z: z \in \mathbb{Z}\}$, then any subgroup would be cyclic. To prove this, I took an arbitrary subgroup $\{e,a^{j_1},a^{j_2},a^{j_3} \cdots \}$ where $j_1,j_2, \cdots$ is a sequence(possibly finite) of integers. Then 2 cases come up: if any pair $j_i, j_k$ has gcd$(j_i,j_k)=1$, then the subgroup becomes the main group itself. the other case is that every pair of indices have non unity gcd.
A subcase to this is, every index is a multiple of some common index. The other case is, there exists two pairs of indices $n_1,n_2$ and $k_1,k_2$ so that $(n_1,n_2) \neq 1$, $(k_1,k_2) \neq 1$ but $((n_1,n_2) ,(k_1,k_2) )=1$. In this case as well, the subgroup becomes the main group. Am I missing any cases?
also it appears quite powerful that if any two elements in the subgroup have indices that are coprimes, then the subgroup would necessarily have to be the main group
I hope im not making an y mistake here
@Jakobian do you think you could explain what you mean by "a copy of $X$ in $\tilde X$"? $X$ is a set of points, $\tilde X$ a set of equivalence classes, i.e. a set of Cauchy sequences in $X$. Do you mean that we treat $X$ as a set of constant sequences, a sequence for each point?
12:27
Can a math object possess local and global symmetries i.e. $(X,G,V)$ where $X$ is a surface which globally has discrete group symmetries i.e. $G$ but locally you can put a Killing field (vector field which preserves the metric)?
in formal math, "forall" actually means "for each", as e.g. $\forall x \exists y$ means the $y$ that exists can be different for each $x$
how can we construct "forall" in first order logic
nvm i got it
just say $\exists y \forall x (x+y=x)$
I can't wait for the Banach people to show up
13:01
@psie I don't know what the original question is but you can consider any point as the set of equivalent classes of cauchy sequences converging to that point. Not necessarily only constant sequences.
ok 👍
13:20
@psie $e[X]$
$\tilde{X}$ is not a set of Cauchy sequences in $X$ but such sequences up to equivalence
$X$ is not treated as set of constant sequences but equivalence classes of such sequences
ah ok, I was sloppy
@nickbros123 this is wrong approach.
@Jakobian could u tell me where im goign wrong
Everywhere
Start over
I do have another proof: I assume $a^j$ is in my subgroup for some $j \neq 0$. I look at the minimal $m$ so that $a^m \in $ subgroup. Then I argue that $a^m$ is the generator of subgroup
using euclids lemma
13:32
You mean that $m$ is the minimal positive such number?
hmm, yeah.
That's correct approach
yh so I can also assert that theres a positive $n$ so that $a^n$ where $n>m$ is in the subgroup, then $a^{mq+r}=a^n$ would force $r$ to be 0
You mean $n\geq m$?
@psie It helps to think of something more concrete. The real numbers can be constructed as a set of equivalence classes of of Cauchy sequences of rational numbers, right?
13:38
yes, but for the sake of a contradiction $n>m$
(Where equivalence is up to a null sequence.)
But any inequality on $n$ is irrelevant anyway
@nickbros123 what contradiction
It is then possible to embed the rational numbers in the real numbers by saying that a rational number $q$ is the real number with equivalence class represented by the constant sequence $(q)$.
That is, $\mathbb{Q} \ni q \mapsto [(q,q,q,q,\dotsc)] \in \mathbb{R}$.
You simply take an element $a^n$ in your subgroup and write $n = mq+r$ where $0\leq r < m$. Then you argue that by minimality of $m$, $r = 0$
@Jakobian we want to show that the elements in the sub group are of the form $(a^mj)$, and we take arbitrary $a^n$ so as to prove this. We already asserted m is the minimal positive integer so that $a^m$ is in the group. if the $n$ we take is equal to $m$, that wouldnt be helpful
anyways this is fine
13:41
Where the equivalence class $[(q)]$ is the set of all Cauchy sequences $x = (x_1, x_2, x_3, \dotsc)$ such that $(q-x_1, q-x_2, q-x_3, \dotsc)$ is a null sequence (i.e. $|q-x_j| \to 0$).
@nickbros123 it wouldn't not be helpful
It's additional noise
What I don't understand about this completion business is the difference between (using my notation) $Y$ and the auxiliary complete space $\tilde X$, the set of all equivalence classes of Cauchy sequences. They both seem to be complete. Why introduce $Y$ at all?
@psie I haven't read all the way back.
@psie what did I tell you that you are essentially trying to show
That they are equal up to isometry, or? I have forgotten what that means exactly.
13:44
That $Y$ is, up to unique isometry that preserves $X$, equal to $\tilde{X}$
In general you won't be constructing a completion, you might just be given one
And $Y$ represents this arbitrary completion.
The whole point is to see that the choice of completion is irrelevant
This is why you introduce $Y$, at all
@psie I am not going to read all the way back through the conversation to figure out what all of your notation means. The big idea in this part of analysis is that there are a lot of things which can be treated as the "same", so just do that---treat them as the same.
@XanderHenderson Essentially this is part of the proof of uniqueness of completion and $Y$ is some completion of $X$, for context
@Jakobian Yeah, I was kind of getting that idea. Where "uniqueness" is up to isometry.
Category theorists have a pretty diagram for explaining this. Something something universal property.
ok, thanks. I feel like I am not done yet in my understanding of this, but I'll take a break here I think.
14:01
@psie Starting from first(ish) principles, the idea is that there are these things in the world called "complete metric spaces", which have the nice property that Cauchy sequences converge (the ur-example is $\mathbb{R}$). Then there are other metric spaces which are not so nice (such as $\mathbb{Q}$), in which Cauchy sequences may not converge.
As natural question to ask is "Given an incomplete metric space $X$, is it possible to find a metric space $Y$ such that $Y$ is complete and $X$ is "nicely" embedded into $Y$? If so, is there a smallest such space? If so, is this space unique in any way?"
those are deep questions I think :)
So, start with an abstract definition: given a (possibly incomplete) space $X$, the completion of $X$ is a space $Y$ such that (1) there is an isometry $X \to Y$, and (2) if $Y'$ is any other space such that there exists an isometry $X \to Y'$, then there is an isometry $Y \to Y'$ (in this sense, $Y$ is the "smallest" space into which $X$ can be isometrically embedded).
(I'm doing this off the top of my head, so there may be errors in the above, but I think that is the basic idea).
Note that this is an abstract definition---nowhere in that definition do I claim that any such space $Y$ exists.
In principle, it might be possible to find several complete metric space into which $X$ embeds, but all of these spaces are incompatible, in the sense that none embeds into another. Or there may be spaces $X$ which cannot be embedded into a complete metric space.
So one has to show that this definition isn't useless.
Step 1 is usually to show that $X$ can always be embedded into at least one complete metric space. The standard "trick" is to take $\mathscr{C}(X)$ to be the set of all Cauchy sequences in $X$, then quotient out the null sequences $\mathscr{N}(X)$, giving the space $\tilde{X} := \mathscr{C}(X) / \mathscr{N}(X)$.
It is not too difficult to show that $\tilde{X}$ is a complete metric space, nor is it too difficult to show that $x \mapsto [(x)]$ is an embedding of $X$ into $\tilde{X}$.
ok 👍
Step 2 is to show that $\tilde{X}$ is the completion of $X$, i.e. that if $X$ can be embedded into any other space $Y$, then $\tilde{X}$ can also be embedded into that space.
(oops---mashed the keyboard)
14:26
$E$ is a space that locally (in region $A$) looks like 8 pairs of pant sewn together i.e a ball with 8 very erected cylinders.
@zetaspace 8 pair of pants would be 16 cylinders.
"Pair" means two.
Though "pear" means delicious fruit.
And "pare" means to remove the excess.
@XanderHenderson right, i meants 4 pairs pants sewn together at the waists giving 8 cylinders
Consider $\Bbb R^3$ and associate to each unit $3$-cell i.e. $X=[0,1]^3$ four intersecting cylinders which collapse to points precisely at $\Bbb Z^3$ (one cylinder collapses at $(0,0,0)$ and $(1,1,1)$ another collapses at $(0,1,1)$ and $(1,0,0)$ etc.). One can delete the singular sets, amounting to $\chi=\Bbb R^3-\lbrace\Bbb Z^3\rbrace$ and then there some curves isotopic to $S^1$ contributing due to the four cylinder intersection in the interior of each $X$. Delete those getting $\beta=\chi-\lbrace S^1 \cup S^1 \cup\cdot\cdot\cdot \rbrace$.
pretty cool surface
And BY THE WAY - this is an abstract definition
the best way to describe it is a "neuron-network" because it looks like neurons in ones brains
15:05
@XanderHenderson a pair of pants is a cyllinder with a hole in it
Two holes if your zipper is open
15:27
$$d(f_s, f_{s'}) = \left| \int_0^1 f_s(x) \, dx - \int_0^1 f_{s'}(x) \, dx \right|=\left| ||f_s||_M - ||f_{s'}||_M \right|$$
where
$$||f_s \cdot f_{s'}||_M \leq ||f_s||_M \cdot ||f_{s'}||_M$$
former is a metric
latter is a property that the norm satisfies
@zetaspace Gross. Use \lVert and \rVert for norms. Or \| if you are lazy, and don't care about spacing.
$\lvert \lvert f \rvert \rvert$
looks the same lol
$$ \lVert f_s \rVert $$
I wonder where this comes $\lVert f_s \cdot f_{s'}\rVert_M \leq \lVert f_s \rVert_M \cdot \Vert f_{s'} \rVert_M$ $M$ here stands for multiplicative
oops I forgot to use lVert on that !
I wonder where that inequality comes into play
because usually I've seen additive norms
 
2 hours later…
17:25
@Jakobian There seems to be also another way to prove this result (every subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic), we can start by assuming $e, a^{j_1}, a^{j_2} \cdots $ are in your subgroup $H \leq G$ where $G=\langle a \rangle$. Case (1), There exists a finite subcollection of $j_1,j_2 \cdots $, call it $j_{n_1}, j_{n_2} \cdots j_{n_k}$ so that $gcd(j_{n_1},j_{n_2} \cdots j_{n_k})=1$.
From generalised Bezout's identity, we can find $x_1,x_2 \cdots x_k$ so that $1=x_1j_{n_1}+x_2j_{n_2} \cdots +x_kj_{n_k}$. This would mean that $H=G$ necessarily. Suppose then that for every finite subcollection of $j_1, j_2, \cdots$, the subcollection's gcd is not 1. This would mean that gcd(whole collection) != 1, which means that they all share a common factor. Hence, $a^{\text{that common factor}}$ would become the generator for this subgroup.
17:49
@nickbros123 why can't you just take $\gcd\{n : a^n\in H\}$ directly
but you're right that this is $m$ such that $m$ divides all $n$ with $a^n\in H$ and $a^m\in H$ (since $m\in \{n : a^n\in H\}$ from definition of $\gcd$)
and so $H$ is generated by $a^m$
I suppose there are cases to consider here but not the ones you mentioned
to assure $\gcd$ is well-defined one would need $H$ to be non-trivial
I suppose my approach was just reproving that $\gcd$ is the same as minimum
so this one is more direct, I agree it's better
 
3 hours later…
20:27
Hello @XanderHenderson are you a moderator? If so, please note the answer in :mathoverflow.net/questions/477078/… . The account has made similar answers elsewhere
@user382894 I am not a moderator on MO. I would suggest that you flag the posts.
21:06
3 people in chat
never seen that before

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