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00:38
hey, so I solved my problem, lol. the poset approach does not work, but it does indeed have something to do with the possible denominators. the set of denominators is precisely $\{r\in R: rx \in R\} = Ann_R(Rx/R). if $x$ is not an element of $R$, $1$ does not belong to this ideal and thus its proper, contained in some $\mathfrak m$. but $x \in R_{\fk m}$, so $s’ x = r’$ for some $s’ \not \in \mathfrak m$; thus $s’ \in \text{set of denominators} \subseteq \mathfrak m$, a contradiction
 
1 hour later…
01:59
@peek-a-boo thanks for confirmation
02:10
I think I might not last those extra 2 hours of sleep
So I guess I'll wake up early
 
2 hours later…
03:56
@LucasHenrique I'm not surprised that badly formatted LaTeX leads to a contradiction, lol (joking btw)
@XanderHenderson EE18 is a stubborn student and needs a stubborn teacher, I suppose
@psie when I click on this I have a message "that request didn't look right" and a cat picture
which sucks a lot
this is why you should type things out rather than post pictures, the letters are too small
04:15
@psie I have no idea what the lemma is saying, as well. If such function $h$ exists, then $Z$ is an absolutely continuous random variable, as you said.
I think this should be a definition rather than a lemma, perhaps?
@Jakobian I formulated it so badly that my writing doesn't make sense. I was thinking that if we rotate the graph of Weierstrass function anti clock wise in some pi/4 angle then would that satisfy. But this is not well defined as you said.
@SoumikMukherjee yeah no worries, I didn't solve the question myself either. One thing to note is that the Banach indicatrix $N(t) = |f^{-1}(t)|$ is a measurable function under assumptions (1) and (4) of that question, perhaps one can use this
i.e. $[0, 1]$ decomposes into measurable sets $B_n = \{t\in [0, 1] : |f^{-1}(t)| = n\}$
in fact Borel measurable
Okay if for $t_1,t_2 \in [0,1]$, $|f^{-1}(t_1)|=m$ and $|f^{-1}(t_2)|=n$ then is it necessary that $m=n$?
04:30
well no, for example something like $f(t) = |t-1/2|$ has $|f^{-1}(0)| = 1$, yet $|f^{-1}(t)| = 2$ for $t\in (0, 1/2]$
I am saying if that could be derived from the assumptions of this problem, ofc this is not true in general.
well, one would have to use that $f$ is nowhere differentiable i.e. assumption (2) somehow
 
2 hours later…
06:34
@Jakobian oh, my bad. I was typing in my phone, now I'm literally laughing out loud hahahaha
 
2 hours later…
08:59
$\lim_{(x,y)\to (0,3)} \frac{e^\frac{x-1}{y^2}+[cos(log_3(y+9)*\sqrt{x})]^{arctan(x)}-2cos(y)+y^{log(1+x^3)}}{\sqrt{x^2+6y^3}-sin(y)}$
I've been doing this exercise with Taylor developments since this morning, but I can't find the right result
isn't the function continuous at $(0,3)$?
ok
🤦‍♂️thank you very much, I've been doing math since this morning, I hadn't really thought about replacing numbers, I thought you should use Taylor. Thanks again
Taylor expansion in two variable is not as powerful as Taylor expansion in one variable to compute limits, you have to be careful
$\frac{\int_0^\infty (1+t^2)^{-2024}dt}{\int_0^\infty (1+t^2)^{-2023}dt}$
what would I do:
09:26
$\frac{\int_0^\infty (1+t^2)^{-2024}dt}{\int_0^\infty (1+t^2)^{-2023}dt}=\frac{\int_0^\infty (1+t^2)^{-\epsilon}dt}{\int_0^\infty (1+t^2)^{-2023}dt}=\frac{\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}((sec(x)^2))^{1-\epsilon}dx}{\int_0^\infty (1+t^2)^{-2023}dt}=\frac{\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}((cos(x)^2))^{\epsilon-1}dx}{\int_0^\infty (1+t^2)^{-2023}dt}=\frac{\frac{1}{4}\int_0^{2\pi}((cos(x)^2))^{\epsilon-1}dx}{\int_0^\infty (1+t^2)^{-2023}dt}$
$\frac{\frac{1}{4}\int_0^{2\pi}((cos(x)^2))^{2\epsilon-2=2k:(k=\epsilon-1)}dx}{\int_0^\infty (1+t^2)^{-2023}dt}=\frac{\frac{1}{4}\int_0^{2\pi}((cos(x)^2))^{2\epsilon-2=2k:(k=\epsilon-1)}dx}{\int_0^\infty (1+t^2)^{-2023}dt}=\frac{\pi}{2}\cdot \frac{(2\epsilon-2)!}{2^{2\epsilon-2}\cdot(\epsilon-2)!\cdot(\epsilon-1)!}$
hi
why not just do $I_n = \int_0^\infty \frac{1}{(1+t^2)^n} dt$ and $I_n = 2n \int_0^\infty \frac{t^2}{(1+t^2)^{n+1}}dt = 2n\cdot (I_n-I_{n+1})$ so $I_{n+1} = \frac{2n-1}{2n}I_n$
$\frac{\pi}{2}\cdot\frac{4046!}{2^{(4046)!}\cdot(2023)!\cdot(2023)!}\cdot\frac{2}{\pi}\frac{2^{4044}\cdot(2022)!\cdot(2022)!}{4044!}$
So $\frac{I_{2024}}{I_{2023}} = \frac{2\cdot 2023-1}{2\cdot 2023}$
work smarter, not harder
$\frac{4045}{4046}$
@Jakobian 😓
you're right
 
4 hours later…
13:41
Determine the volume of the solid of rotation
T triangle of vertices (0,0,2),(0,-1,1) and (0,1,1) around the y.So , $T=\{(y,z):z-2\leq y\leq2-z,1\leq z \leq2 \}$
$V=2\pi\int_T z \ \ dydz= 2\pi\int_1^2(\int{z-2}^{2-z}z\ dy)\ dz=4\pi\int_1^2(2z-z)^2 dz=4\pi[z^2-\frac{z^3}{3}]_1^2=\frac{8\pi}{3}$
can someone explain these steps to me pls, this is the solution
13:53
ok, I solved it
14:19
hi
I would like to ask this directly on math stack exchange , but surely it would be closed soon. Therefore I try it here : Suppose , someone tells use that a positive integer $n$ is the product of two distinct primes $p<q$ , but we do not know those prime factors. Is there a way to find out whether $p\mid q-1$ holds without finding the prime factors ?
15:17
I was trying to determine the domain of this function, and then graph it:
$f(x,y) = \log(xy^2+x^2y)$

$D=xy^2+x^2y >0 \leftrightarrow xy(x+y)>0$

$xy>0$ when $x>0,y>0$ and $x<0,y<0$.
$x+y>0$ then $x>-y$ or $y>-x$
@Pizza draw the regions in $\Bbb R^2$
@SineoftheTime $D=\{(x,y):(x > 0, y > 0) ∨ (x < 0, 0 < y < −x) ∨ (x > 0, y < −x)\}$
exactly, can you see the domain?
@SineoftheTime yes is the blue part, excluding the dotted part
right?
so it's the first quadran
now you have to study the other case
15:31
You are asking if your domain is correct, but you have explained none of your thinking. How did you arrive at your answer? Typically, if you can explain to another person how you arrived at an answer, you can be fairly certain of your own correctness.
Instead of giving other people the answer, and asking if it is right, pretend that you are the expert on the problem, and explain your answer to other people.
For example, with respect to this problem: my first thought is the the argument of $\log$ must be positive. Hence $xy^2+x^2y = xy(x+y)$ must be positive (you wrote down this last inequality, but didn't explain it---perhaps it is too trivial?).
From there, I actually see (naively) four cases that I might want to think about: since there are three factors, and the result is positive, either none of the factors are negative, or two of the factors are negative. Hence (1) $x,y,x+y > 0$, (2) $x,y < 0$, (3) $x,x+y<0$, or (4) $y,x+y < 0$.
Case (1) is satisfied whenever $x,y>0$, since this implies that $x+y$ will also be positive. So the entire first quadrant is in the domain.
Case (2) is impossible, since $x,y< 0$ implies that $x+y<0$. So no new information is obtained from that case.
Case (3) gives $y<-x$ with $y>0$ and $x<0$. This is everything in quadrant II below the line $y=-x$ (the inequality $y<-x$ can be read as "$y$ is below $-x$).
Case (4) gives $y<-x$ with $y<0$ and $x>0$. So this is everything in quadrant IV with $y$ below the line $y=-x$.
@Pizza you have to use the sign rule
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom What are "the sign rule"? You assert with great confidence that one has to use these rules---what are they?
In mathematics, Descartes' rule of signs, first described by René Descartes in his work La Géométrie, is a technique for getting information on the number of positive real roots of a polynomial. It asserts that the number of positive roots is at most the number of sign changes in the sequence of polynomial's coefficients (omitting the zero coefficients), and that the difference between these two numbers is always even. This implies, in particular, that if the number of sign changes is zero or one, then there are exactly zero or one positive roots, respectively. By a linear fractional transformation...
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom That is not relevant to this question at all.
That is about finding the number of possible zeros to a polynomial equation in one variable.
Pizza is asking about the domain of function, which depends on a polynomial in two variables being positive.
15:49
The rule of signs is used to determine the conditions under which the product
$xy(y+x)$ is positive.
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom You are going to have to explain what you are thinking, because (a) I see no reason to use Descartes' rule of signs, and (b) I don't see how it applies to this problem.
@XanderHenderson Descartes' rule of signs helps us understand the sign variations of the expression $xy(y+x)$ to determine the regions where this is positive.
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom I'll say the same thing to you that I said to Pizza. You need to explain your thinking.
@XanderHenderson thanks!
I have no idea what you are suggesting. Perhaps you should outline your argument.
15:53
next time I will be more clear
@XanderHenderson ?
In any event, I think that any argument which appeals to Descartes' rule of signs is likely overkill, as I gave an argument which only uses the idea that if the parity of negative factors in a product is even, then the product is positive; and if the parity of the negative factors in a product is odd, then the product is negative.
I wrote because I used it
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom Show your work.
15:54
Descartes' rule of signs is irrelevant to the problem that Pizza was asking about.
first of all the sign of the terms is analyzed
so
You don't need it, and I think that invoking it is likely to cause confusion, particularly when you haven't explained how you are using it.
$xy > 0$ if x and y have the same sign (both positive or both negative).
$xy < 0$ if x and y have opposite signs.
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom Okay.. this has nothing to do with Descartes, so far.
it was for the spaces
wait
now I have to do the different cases
$x>0$
case
If $y > 0$:
$xy > 0$ positive
$y + x > 0$ positive
So, $xy(y + x) > 0$

if $y < -x$ :
$xy < 0$ negative
$y + x < 0$ negative
The product of two negative terms is positive, so $xy(y + x) > 0$
16:02
So far, it looks like you are doing exactly what I did, only in a more cumbersome manner. Where have you used Descartes?
8 mins ago, by Xander Henderson
In any event, I think that any argument which appeals to Descartes' rule of signs is likely overkill, as I gave an argument which only uses the idea that if the parity of negative factors in a product is even, then the product is positive; and if the parity of the negative factors in a product is odd, then the product is negative.
Descartes' rule of signs helps us understand the sign variations of the expression xy(y+x)
to determine the regions where this is positive. here
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom No, it doesn't. And you haven't used it at all!
do you mean $ab>0$ iff $a>0,b>0$ or $a<0,b<0$?
Descartes' rule of signs is about obtaining information about the number of positive (or negative) roots of a one-variable polynomial based on the number of variations of sign when the polynomial is expressed in standard form.
Descartes' sign rule allowed us to identify regions where $xy(y + x) > 0$:

$x > 0$ and $y > 0$
$x > 0$ and $y < -x$
$x < 0$ and $0 < y < -x$
16:07
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom How?
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom That has nothing to do with Descartes' rule of signs. Did you even read the Wikipedia article to which you linked?
In 12b they could easily have written min right?
instead of inf?
@EE18 Do you know that a minimum exists?
16:11
@XanderHenderson I sent it wrong
@EE18 It appears to me that the infimum is taken over all $y\in F$, where $F$ is the span of $B$. I assume that $F$ is infinite (or could be infinite), hence there is no obvious a priori reason to assume that there is a $y \in F$ satisfying $y = \inf \|x-y\|$.
are there any examples of sets that don't have the same order type that isn't a result of one set having negatives and the other not
No, but what I mean is once I show it obeys the property of being less than everything else in the set then since it's in the subspace in particular then we have the minimum property
@EE18 Okay, but that is putting the cart before the horse, I think.
Sort of I guess, but no more so than making this claim about an infimum. The relevant matter here is that $p_F(x) \in F$ right? THat's more or less all I'm asking
16:15
You know that the infimum meaningfully exists. You don't know, a priori, that a minimum exists.
@XanderHenderson This is what I don't agree with. I know no more about an infimum than the minimum a priori
Once you have shown that there is some element which attains the the infimum, then you know that the infimum is, in fact, a minimum, but why put that in the assumptions of the thing you are trying to prove.
OH
@EE18 You do. Infima always exist.
You are using properties of $\Bbb R$
16:16
Minima don't.
Ah OK, got it
Much appreciated, thank you
Determine all the 2x2 matrices such that it results:
$A^3-3A^2=\begin{pmatrix} -2 & -2 \\ -2 & -2\end{pmatrix}$
you are missing a \
thanks
$det(A^2)\cdot det(A-3I)=det(\begin{pmatrix}-2 & -2 \\ -2 & -2\end{pmatrix}$)
right?
I'll try to check
looking at the solutions wolfram gave, the matrices seem singular so i think you need to assume that det(A) = 0
16:28
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom As I said to Pizza, explain your thinking. What theorem or result are you invoking, here? It looks very wrong to me.
$det(A^2)\cdot det(A-3I)=0$
because it's a square matrix with terms that are all the same so it's zero
I can't help you much, I'm sorry :(
@Pizza np, i dont trust computer
Oh, I see what you've done. You skipped a step. In general, $\operatorname{det}(AB) = \operatorname{det}(A)\operatorname{det}(B)$. Yes.
@Obliv {1} and {1,2}
16:30
{1} doesn't even have an order
But that doesn't really help you very much in solving the original problem.
@Pizza many times they make mistakes
@XanderHenderson let continue
I start by making the case that $det(A)=0$
Can I set A as a square matrix of unknown terms?
@Obliv If you want strict order then {1,2} and {1,2,3}
Don't I have to find the trace of A too?
so for finite sets, they'd have to be different size
16:32
okay I'll go straight
since there wouldn't be a bijection b/t them
$Tr(A)=a+d$
$\begin{pmatrix}a-\lambda& b \\ c & d-\lambda\end{pmatrix}$
This Is the det $(A-\lambda I)$
In mathematics, a binary relation R ⊆ X×Y between two sets X and Y is total (or left total) if the source set X equals the domain {x : there is a y with xRy }. Conversely, R is called right total if Y equals the range {y : there is an x with xRy }. When f: X → Y is a function, the domain of f is all of X, hence f is a total relation. On the other hand, if f is a partial function, then the domain may be a proper subset of X, in which case f is not a total relation. "A binary relation is said to be total with respect to a universe of discourse just in case everything in that universe of discourse...
$det(A)=ad-cb$ I call it P$(\lambda)$
does this apply to all relations, not just binary ones
16:34
So the characteristic polynomial will be
$P(\lambda)=\lambda^2-tr(A)\lambda-det(A)$
I can use this Hamilton-Cayley theorem
@Obliv You can construct a counter example using both sets to be countably infinite.
I can't set $P(\lambda)=0$ it's like setting $P(A)=0$
so two sets have the same order type if there is an order preserving map b/t them like an isomorphism that respects the operation but in this case it's a transitive, total relation that isn't reflexive nor symmetric
So now I can't put A in place of $\lambda$
no wait
i can
$A^2=tr(A)\cdot A$
$A^3=A\cdot A^2 = A^2 \cdot tr(A)$
so
$(tr(A))^3 -3(tr(A))^2 +4=0$
actually nvm i don't know if thats true
16:37
$tr(A)=-1$ or $tr(A)=2$
i think u can preserve order since it doesn't actually matter which direction < or >
A = -1/2 (1 1, 1 1) or (1 1, 1 1)
the other is with all -1/2
i use binet theorem for the other case
$(A+I)\cdot(A-2I)^2=$\begin{pmatrix}2& -2\\ -2 & 2\end{pmatrix}
Calculate the determinant of both members
I find a $\lambda=3$
Now i use Hamilton theorem again
Hamilton-Cayley theorem
I find that $\lambda=2$
the eigenvalues
so
$A^2-5A+6I=0$
so
$19A-30I$
bro can you stop spamming your work
how can i show you all the steps then
you can condense it, or type it up somewhere and link to it like overleaf or something
you're flooding chat with small messages unnecessarily
2
16:44
I write the last 2 solutions
I find a matrix A=(5/2 -1/2, -1/2 5/2)
and a matrix (1 -2, -2 1)
is correct?
u dont have access to solutions to check?
which textbook
@Obliv if you have any counterexample in mind that uses the negetive integers, you can make a new set out of positive integers while keeping the original order. So it doesn't matter what kind of elements the set consists of.
well I was thinking of the example they gave which is $\mathbb{R}$ has same order as $(-1,1)$ because there exists $f: (-1,1) \to \mathbb{R}$ given by $f(x) = \frac{x}{1-x^2}$
and I just assumed the interval that has the same order type should have negative and positive integers and be continuous
17:03
3
Q: Find time to collision in a pursuit

GDGDJKJ Problem 1.13 from Irodov's Problems in General Physics: Point A moves uniformly with velocity $v$ so that the vector $v$ is continually "aimed" at point B which in its turn moves rectilinearly and uniformly with velocity $u<v$. Initially, $v⊥u$, and the points are separated by a distance $l$. Th...

Can you kindly tell me why is here $\frac {dr}{dt} = ucos {\theta}-v $ instead of $\frac{dr}{dt} = vsin {\theta}$
?
@DebanjanBiswas apply the chain rule to $\frac {d}{dt}\sqrt{x^2+y^2}$
I don't know if munkres is reusing $a,b$ in the 2nd paragraph to mean the same $a,b$ in the first
if not, then $A_0 \subset A$ can be bounded above by $b$ without requiring $b \in A_0$
but that doesn't seem to make sense so I guess it's the same a,b
it's just weird to say "if there is an element b of A" again, since it was already established that $b \in A_0$ was the largest element of $A_0$
OHH nvm I get it. He kinda resets what $a,b$ are in the 2nd paragraph and says the least element in the intersection of upper bounds of $A_0$ is $b$
basically defining $b$ in two different ways
anyway it was right in the end
@Obliv bro can you stop spamming your work
17:19
bro 😎
dang, you got me lol. I should practice what I preach
It's extremely easy and convenient to set up a separate room to discuss any particular messy question.
How? Don't you have to invite someone to make a room though
Yup.
So, first you have to find someone interested :-)
You know how people play chess by themselves? Maybe i should make a sock puppet on here so I can answer my own questions :D
invite them to my sock puppet channel
Ofc, now that I've said that, xander will smite me if I do.
17:26
💯
yesterday I beated a 2450+ rated player on lichess :)
Nice, I only play against lvl 8 stockfish when I'm on the toilet or bored
I don't get very far :P my best is like move 20ish with about 0.0
Binky did nothing wrong, everyone "spams" and I refuse to make an exception in this case
17:33
Okay, but we could all just not spam and make the chat room more readable? i.e., write up your entire problem statement & attempt somewhere else or in a couple of messages here, utilizing all of the horizontal space allotted in a message..
the first thing you propose is annoying for couple of reasons
@Jakobian thanks
on a screenshot, the letters are too small and so "writing somewhere else" is not a good way to make room more readable
I understand that you may have interpreted my actions as spam, but I would like to clarify that it was not my intention to annoy or disturb. I shared that information because I thought it was relevant and useful to the ongoing discussion. If there is something specific that has bothered you, I am here to listen and discuss it openly. My intention was never to violate the rules or annoy other users. I hope we can clarify this situation and continue to interact constructively.
and about flooding, it wasn't getting out of hand, everyone is flooding the chat with their problems, its not as much spam as is what any of you write in here
while you could optimize writing of those computations better and write them in less messages, it wasn't annoying as much as anything in the chat is annoying
17:41
@Jakobian I understand your point of view. I will try to be more efficient in my messages in the future.
I apologize if my posts were not as optimized as they could have been.
@jakobian have u made any progress on what u want to do with ur result
@SineoftheTime nice, in blitz?
I don't understand your question?
17:52
like whether you wanna publish it or whatever
I did and do
I don't see how this is a thing requiring any sort of progress
$\frac{dP}{P\Delta H} = \frac{A}{\rho g T}dT - \frac{nR}{P^2}dT$ what is that?
looks like something in thermodynamics
maybe related to maxwell relations
ah ok
thank you
where did you find it..?
17:58
on internet
Nice, that's specific :P
(y’)^2=p+q(y^2) , with p and q constants
i need to solve that
you can ask in here as well since that's the physics room
I went to write
@Obliv I really appreciate your help in providing me with useful resources to study the topic.
could this perhaps be related to your previous question about solving $A^3 - 3A^2 = \begin{pmatrix}-2&-2\\-2&-2\end{pmatrix}$?
18:03
in theory in my exercise I should differentiate and after finishing
@Obliv I don't see the connection between the two things
@Peter I don't think a lot of people would know, maybe someone from computational side of things. Perhaps its useful to rephrase this as $p|\varphi(n)$? Though I haven't been able to represent $p$ in any way. Or maybe one of the Fourier transform methods works?
\o @robjohn
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom can't you solve for $y'$ and then solve a separable diff. equation or this does not work?
@SineoftheTime It might work
did you try it?
18:12
now i try
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom why do you need to solve stuff you find on Wikipedia?
2
you should get some expression with $\sinh$ or its inverse
@user85795 wikipedia?
its not on wikipedia
@SineoftheTime $\int \frac{dy}{\sqrt{p + qy^2}} = \pm \int dx$ im here
Where do you find your questions?
@user85795 The questions I interact with are collected from a wide range of sources, including online conversations, forums, articles and more.
18:17
So you don't use any textbooks...
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom do you know how to solve $\int \frac1{\sqrt{a^2+x^2}}dx$?
@SineoftheTime with trigonometric substitutions?
you can use different substitutions
18:19
trig or hyperbolic
$\int \sec(\theta) \, d\theta$
$\ln|\sec(\theta) + \tan(\theta)| + C$
do you think this is correct?
maybe I made a mistake
$x=a\tan u$ or $x=a\sinh u$
$\sinh^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{a}\right) + C$
this?
18:46
Am I going crazy, why do I need CS inequality for 13(a)?
Can't I just apply 12(c) and that norms are nonnegative?
I had a question, to deduce a graph, without using any software, I have for example $x^2-y > 0 \Rightarrow x^2>y$, so i know that $x^2$ is a parabola so I can write for first $x^2=y$ that is a parabola without dotted lines because there is $=$, then $x^2>y$ will be a parabola with dotted lines and since $>$ the shading will be outside
for other functions, generally , what ever my equation is,i need to find a way to transform it into a well known function?
@Pizza you can choose a point and see what happen
for example for $(0,1)$, you have $y>x^2$, so the region $x^2>y$ is the "outside"
@ee18 I'm not up to where you are yet but is CS and triangle inequality same thing?
I saw this in munkres and I see it in linear algebra, and pretty much everywhere
No, but triangle follows from CS when in an inner product space so that both of these notions make sense
The picture you sent is unrelated though?
18:51
@EE18 maybe you're not meant to use the previous ex (?)
if you append that condition 6) onto a field it becomes ordered
it is unrelated, I just wanted to know thank you
@EE18 well actually no, the cs, triangle inequalities work for ordered stuff I think
@Pizza you have to do some studies in pieces
unrelated to your question/problem though, yes.
@SineoftheTime I guess not but feels weird to show them in sequence andthen not use them
@Pizza do you want an example?
18:53
@EE18 sure
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom ok
can you do this $\log(x^2-y)$
ok
do you agree that a number comes out in the logarithm?
@Pizza is it clear my example with $(0,1)$ ?
@Pizza the rules for calculating the domain are the same, so you have to make the logarithm argument greater (>) than 0
@SineoftheTime yes i mean if $y>x^2$, the region is inside than
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom yes
I did it
18:59
@Pizza if you have a doubt, consider a point belonging to one of the region and see what happens
now write down the corresponding equation with =
@SineoftheTime my biggest doubt was how to draw the graphs without using software
@BinkyMcSquigglebottom $x^2-y=0$
first draw the graph with $=$
19:00
so $x^2=y$, parabola
What are the points that respect this equation?
@SineoftheTime yes
so for example you want to know $x^2>y$, this is or the "inside" or the "outside" right?
this is outside right?
yes, but wait
take a random point, for example $(0,1)$
which is in the "inside" right?
19:04
@Pizza the solutions are the points of the parabola, because if a point $P(x,y)$ belongs to the parabola with center in the $O$, will verify this equation
@SineoftheTime yes
in this case, you have $y=1>0=x^2$ so the "inside" is $y>x^2$
is it clear now?
@Pizza do you agree that the solutions represent a curve in the plane?
I'm trying to be as detailed as possible
@SineoftheTime yes
@Pizza now let's go back to the inequality
19:08
ok
now there is a proposition that I will write to you
@SineoftheTime but for example before geogebra.org/calculator/th7eqdsw
sorry i had the copy on a msg
to know how to draw this graph without software how can I do it
When I have a curve $y=f(x)$, this divides the plane into two flat domains, in each of which we have $y>f(x)$ or $y<f(x)$
that is, in one of the two half-planes we have that y is always greater than f(x) or y is always less than f(x)
that is, in a half-plane there cannot be a point where $y>f(x)$ and another point where $y<f(x)$
for example your parabola divides the plane into 2 half-planes, the part that is inside and the part that is outside, NOW it cannot happen that inside the parabola I have 2 points where one where y>f(x) and another where is smaller
But now which of the 2 half-planes satisfies $x^2>y$
Make some trivial attempts
we take a point that is either inside the curve or outside, we take like $(0,1)$ which is inside the parabola, I replace and I get $0^2>1$, which is not true, therefore all the points interiors do not satisfy this inequality. Those who satisfy it are the external ones
For the first proposition
thanks
 
2 hours later…
21:14
0
Q: Attempt to generalize the notion of absolute continuity to multidimensional domains

Dannyu NDosRecall the notion of absolute continuity over a 1-dimensional domain: Definition. A function $f: I \to \mathbb{R}$, where $I$ is a compact subspace of $\mathbb{R}$, is said to be absolutely continuous if, for every positive number $\epsilon$, there exists a positive number $\delta$ such that, fo...

Is this question too soft?
21:37
In the definition of the derivative in higher dimensions, in e.g. Spivak's CoM, we have $$\lim_{h\to0}\frac{|f(a+h)-f(a)-\lambda(h)|}{|h|}=0.$$ Here $h$ is a vector in $\mathbb R^n$, and what confuses me about this definition is that this vector should tend to the origin.
Maybe this is so basic that he never bothers to define it, but what does it mean for a vector to tend to $0$, or to any other point for that matter (since later on, he uses a slightly different defintion where we've made a substitution in the above formula)?
@psie It asks for an open neighborhood of the origin.
@DannyuNDos hmm, Spivak never talks about neighborhoods
ah ok, I see what you mean
what confuses me is the notation $\lim_{h\to 0}$ itself
I think the author was too lazy to write epsilon-delta...?
what would be different about writing $\lim_{|h|\to 0}$?
No difference; they are equivalent.
Btw, that's a rather cool definition of differentiability, I'd say.
That should be easily extendable to an arbitary normed vector space, even for infinite-dimensional ones.
21:51
ok, so $\lim_{h\to 0}$ is equivalent to $\lim_{|h|\to 0}$, but what about $\lim_{x\to a}$, where $a$ is some constant vector. Is it possible to formulate this also in terms of a limit in norm? Somehow I have an easier time thinking in terms of norms rather than vectors. I'm just so used to the limit operator being something for scalar variables.
That's easy; just substitute $x$ to $x + a$, and then take $\lim_{x \to 0}$.
ah ok, that makes sense
psie it's the usual metric space definition of limit, if you are familiar with that. lim_{x to a} f(x) = L means for all e > 0 there is delta > 0 with 0 < d(x,a) < delta implies d(f(x),L) < epsilon. if everything is R^1 you have |x - a| and |f(x) - L| playing the roles of d(x,a) and d(f(x),L) respectively. in R^m you would traditionally use ||x - a|| (euclidean norm) for d(x,a) and similarly for d(f(x),L) (which might be computed in an R^m that is not R^n)
same intuition as the scalar case. you look at what the function is doing for x near, but not exactly at, the point at which you are taking the limit. equivalently you can think of looking at points x of the form a + h, where h is a small nonzero vector.
ok, thanks, I think I'm beginning to feel more comfortable with the notation lim_{x to something}, where x is a vector variable. As you say, it's just notation for a definition. I forget sometimes :)
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