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00:43
Am I going crazy or does this solution not really work?
5
Q: Proving $d_1=\frac{d(x,y)}{1+d(x,y)}$ is a metric equivalent with $d$, a given metric

user284178Given a set $X$, define a metric by $d_1=\frac{d(x,y)}{1+d(x,y)}$ for all $x,y\in X$. I want to show that $d_1$ is a metric equivalent with $d$, a given metric. Here is my attempt so far: Given a set $U\subseteq X$ which is open in the $d$ metric and $x\in U$, there exists an $\varepsilon>0$ such...

I am using a slightly different strategy but I have no clue what's going on in this answer
@EE18 question or the answer
Answer
Will send my answer in two seconds, hopefully before i take off on this flight lol...
I don't think a question from 2016 needs another answer
unless perhaps the answer is wrong but let me see
No lol I'm not going to answer, I'm saying I'm working the same problem right now
and i feel like it's wrong
But also it has 5 upvotes so i doubt it lol
are you objecting that the OP proved $B_{d}(x, r)\subseteq B_{d_1}(x, r)$ part
00:54
Yes, no subscript 2 on $d$ though
so are you objecting that $d_1\leq d$
@EE18
No, the other direction is the challenging one right
Anyway I am taking off, apologies i have to run!
I don't care about your proof right now
I care about if you consider the answer true and if not then why
well its subtle but the answer on that question is indeed wrong
I left a comment on this
01:37
I also left a correct answer
with few additional side comments about the metric $d_1$ and that this actually shows more than just equivalence of metrics
 
5 hours later…
07:05
Sorry, just landed
I agree with your comment and answer. I think in my solution I need to pay a little more attention to when we can rewrite d in terms of delta, with the d=0 case the one of concern
 
1 hour later…
08:07
@Derivative I'm not familiar with libgen. I am aware of several sites with free or creative commons maths books, e.g. openstax.org/subjects/math, but I don't know if libgen is similar.
 
1 hour later…
09:27
Hi
I am having difficulty in understanding langrage interpolation theorem.
Like for starting point. Online it says with the first step. We have to multiply linear terms. (x-x1)(x-x2)(x-x3) and equate this to 0. Why do we do that ?
09:45
@Tsundoku libgen is the Goat 🐐 of all those free sites
And a few more steps. Could someone help
10:44
I've just noticed that linear logic is not paraconsistent.
Proof: From nothing, infer $\vdash 1$. Then dually, $\bot \vdash$.
11:25
hi
@SoumikMukherjee whats up
12:12
⬆️🆙🔝
@SoumikMukherjee Ooh, that's a nice one--thanks!
@XanderHenderson I do that, too, in my calc course, since I know they've seen PMI in precalc.
@Pizza not much, what about you?
12:43
@EE18 your proof technically correct but there are steps which were done for no reason
@SoumikMukherjee I'm quite well thanks
@S.M.T can you be more clear about the proof you are looking at
12:58
@Jakobian can i you a question about mathexchange
if I publish a post on the homepage, after a few people publish their new posts, then mine disappears from the homepage, how do I make sure that it returns to the homepage?
you dont
it is not polite to want your post always on the homepage
yes but not having it on the homepage, can someone somehow see it?
be patient
people search for good questions to answer
I mean how do they find it, maybe through tags, I don't know much about this
13:07
yes, tag it appropriately
@nitsua60 I teach induction in my precalculus classes, but the book we use here does not, so I don't think that my colleagues teach it, and I am sure that the high schools don't. So I do a short unit on induction in both precalc and calculus.
@user70432 ok!
Induction is definitely a topic for Algebra 2.
@user70432 "Algebra 2" is not a mathematical topic. It is the name of a class.
$D$ is the domain contained in the first quadrant and delimited by the $x$ axis, the parabola $y = x^2-2$ and the bisector of the first and third quadrants.
$D = \{(x, y) \ | \ 0 \leq x \leq \sqrt{2}, \ x^2 - 2 \leq y \leq x \}$
is this correct? since I have to consider only the first quadrant, I take only $x = \sqrt{2}$
13:11
Huh... and "mathematical induction" doesn't seem to be in the Common Core. That's disappointing.
There is a reference to it at the bottom of page 64, in a footnote, noting that the binomial theorem can be proved via induction.
Sad.
:(
13:23
I can see why someone is struggling with induction
we're doing things on intuitive level and induction is completely intuitive
so people might think, why do we even state it
and I agree, why do people even state induction, its not like people are getting introduced to basic propositional logic
not formally at least
but its like, no, induction is special
and has to be introduced formally for some reason
The reason is clarity of thought.
@Pizza no
The bound on $x$ is incorrect, also you need to add x,y>=0
mm wait
im trying to solve this
Calculate the following double integral (directly and with the Gauss Green formula)
$$\int\int_D xy \ dx \ dy$$ Where $D$ is the domain contained in the first quadrant and delimited by the $x$ axis, the parabola $y = x^2-2$ and the bisector of the first and third quadrant.
is it necessary to add x,y >= 0?
$\int_{0}^{\sqrt{2}} \int_{x^2 - 2}^{x} xy \ \, dy \, dx$
so it's not like that?
@SoumikMukherjee
13:59
@Pizza You should use \iint for double integrals: \iint_D xy\,\mathrm{d}x\,\mathrm{dy} renders as $$\iint_D xy\,\mathrm{d}x\,\mathrm{dy}.$$
oh ok thanks!
but do I have to integrate with $x$ first? it is given as $\mathrm{dx}$ $\mathrm{dy}$ so for this reason I have to do $x$ first?
or can I also integrate first for $y$?
Well, if you want to compute it directly, you can start with either variable. That is Fubini-Toneli, n'est-ce pas?
Boy, "the bisector of the first and third quadrant" is awkward phrasing. Why not just give the equation for the line, i.e. $y=x$?
@XanderHenderson I honestly copied and pasted it, it was written like this
i think i fixed my domain wait
@Pizza I didn't say that you had made a mistake. Only that this is a very awkward way of phrasing things (in my opinion).
ah yes, no I thought you were reading the sentences where I said if the domain was correct
14:10
I haven't looked at your math at all.
okok
14:22
i think i fixed it
so
the parabola meets the line at point (2,2) by the way not sqrt2
I had done $x^2-2=0$ before, but it is $x^2-2=x$ because that will be where the parabola meets the line , since that is basically the corner of the domain
other corner being the origin , the line is y = x and the parabola is $y = x^2 -2$ so $x^2 -2 = x$
right?
so for y first D is
$$D={(x,y)|y\le x \le \sqrt{y+2}, 0\le y \le 2}$$
for x first
$$x^2-2\le y\le x,0\le x\le 2$$
so it is $\int_{0}^{2} \int_{x^2 - 2}^{x} xy \ \mathrm{d}x\,\mathrm{dy}$
i can do it in y because the integral will be easier i think
15:24
@SoumikMukherjee Thanks anyway, yes the x part was wrong
you were right
I calculated the double integral directly and got $\frac{2}{3}$, now using gauss green I should get the same result right?
15:40
@Pizza However you compute the integral, you should get the same thing.
@XanderHenderson do I need to define the vector field?
I'm having a bit of trouble honestly
@Pizza I haven't taught Gauss/Green/Stokes since 2017. It is not at all top of mind for me.
okay don't worry, I'll see better later
 
2 hours later…
17:16
When I see n'est-ce pas I just blank out
Definitely not a word in my dictionary
Well, word. Sentence or whatever. I don't know how to call it
17:30
Suppose we have a category with all finite products and coproducts. Given an object A, can we create the selection function f : (1 + 1) * A * A -> A, satisfying f(i1, g, h) = g and f(i2, g, h) = h?
@Pizza the inner integral is with respect to $x$ and the limits are in terms of $x$. This can be done, but it makes the result a function of the $x$ in the limits. Perhaps you intended $\mathrm{d}y\,\mathrm{d}x$?
@robjohn ah yes sorry
i write it wrong
If the category were also cartesian closed, it would be easy: take the two projections A * A -> A and curry them into 1 -> hom(A * A, A), then take the coproduct of those to obtain a single morphism 1 + 1 -> hom(A * A, A), then uncurry.
@TannerSwett it depends, e.g. the answer is yes if the category is distributive and no if it is pointed (and non-trivial)
cartesian closed categories are distributive, so that generalizes your observation
Good to know! Now I'm trying to think if I can name a particular counterexample, like the category of pointed sets or the category of monoids.
17:40
those work, as does any abelian category
Thanks!
The reason I ask is that I'm trying to figure out the smallest amount of structure I need to build functions involving things like booleans, natural numbers, and tuples. I was wondering if, for booleans, it's sufficient to have finite products and two arrows 1 -> 2 with a universal property stating that a pair of arrows 1 -> A can be factored into a single arrow 2 -> A.
Now I know that that's not sufficient, and I should probably instead use a universal property with a parameter, asserting that a pair of arrows B -> A can be factored into a single arrow 2 * B -> A.
18:11
Calculate the following double integral (directly and with the Gauss Green formula)
$$\iint_D xy\,\mathrm{d}x\,\mathrm{dy}$$Where $D$ is the domain contained in the first quadrant and delimited by the $x$ axis, the parabola $y = x^2-2$ and $y=x$.

$$\text{For x:} \ \ \ \ D = (x,y)|x^2-2\le y\le x,0\le x\le 2$$ $$\text{For y:} \ \ \ \ D={(x,y)|y\le x \le \sqrt{y+2}, 0\le y \le 2}$$
One thing isn't clear to me, can I choose the domain?
the thing is, I don't have a solution, so I don't know if I'm doing it correctly
could someone help me a moment pls
did you draw the domain $D$?
em wait i dont have enough points to share
wait
Hi, in the theorem: "A function $\alpha:S\to T$ is bijective iff there exists $\beta:T \to S$ such that $\alpha\beta=1_T$ and $\beta \alpha =1_S$", I am not sure if I proved one thing correctly. In the implication $\implies$, from the bijectivity hypothesis I deduced that for each $t \in T$ there exists a unique $s_t \in S$ such that $\alpha(s_t)=t$, and so I defined $\beta$ as $\beta(t):=s_t$ and so $(\alpha \beta)(t)=\alpha(s_t)=t=1_T$.

However, I am not sure how to show that $\beta \alpha=1_S$. My approach is this: let $s \in S$. Hence, $\alpha(s)\in T$ and so there exists $t\in T$ such
something like that
Let $C$ be the Cantor set. Suppose $x\in C$, so that $x=\sum_1^\infty a_j3^{-j}$ where $a_j=0$ or $2$ for all $j$. Let $$f(x)=\sum_1^\infty b_j2^{-j}\text{ where }b_j=a_j/2.$$ Then the claim in Folland's book is that $f$ maps $C$ onto $[0,1]$ and therefor $C$ has the cardinality of the continuum. I see how the map is surjective, but it also needs to be injective, right? How can I see that it is injective?
18:19
@Pizza correct
@SineoftheTime it's not clear to me when I go to choose whether to integrate for y or x, which domain to take
the domain "for y" doesn't look correct
@Pizza do you know Fubini's theorem?
yes wait
$$\iint_R f(x, y) \, dx \, dy = \int_{a}^{b} \int_{c}^{d} f(x, y) \, dy \, dx$$
or $$\iint_R f(x, y) \, dx \, dy = \int_{c}^{d} \int_{a}^{b} f(x, y) \, dx \, dy$$
is this
yes, so you can choose to integrate first with respect to x and then with respect to y or viceversa
here is convenient to use what you wrote in "for x"
but can I choose it?
for $y$ i mean to solve $x^2-2=y$ , for $x$ i mean $x^2-2=x$
is correct?
18:30
@Pizza yes
@SineoftheTime where did i go wrong
wait, it's correct maybe
@psie I guess injectivity follows from the fact that we choose the unique ternary expansion of some number in $[0,1]$. So to each sequence $(a_j)$ and consequently to $(b_j)$, there is exactly one number $x\in[0,1]$, i.e. $f$ is injective.
for x it's wrong
since when $x=0$ for example, $y$ is negative
but $y\ge 0$ in $D$
isnt for x,$x_1 = -1$ $x_2 = 2$
so i consider only 2 bc we are looking for the right-most x value
@SineoftheTime
18:44
what are $x_1$ and $x_2$?
for x is wrong since you're including negative values of y
the solution of $x^2-2=x$
try to draw for x and you'll understand why it's wrong
@SineoftheTime do i have to include y >= 0?
in D y is bigger than 0
you're not integrating over D
you're integrating over this: desmos.com/calculator/3zabdb3vgt
what is this
i dont understad
18:52
@psie The function is not injective, nor does it need to be.
draw for x
@Thorgott Are you sure that it's not injective? Which theorem/proposition are you relying on when you say it does not need to be? I think Folland establishes that there is a bijection between the Cantor set $C$ and $[0,1]$, the latter which has the cardinality of the continuum. So they have the same cardinality.
@SineoftheTime do i have to modify this ?
use "for y" to integrate, you don't need both
Yes, I'm sure it's not injective. Note also Folland never says that it is.
If $A$ surjects onto $B$, then the cardinality of $B$ is $\le$ the cardinality of $A$. This is basic set theory.
18:58
@Thorgott Are you assuming my axioms?
yes
it's wrong
yes, and with pleasure
@Thorgott right, but here we want to show the cardinality is the continuum, so an inequality is not enough?
@SineoftheTime you mean the red part?
@psie the other inequality is obvious
also, re: injectivity: $f$ maps $0.2$ in base $3$ to $0.1$ in base $2$ and $0.022\dotsc$ in base $3$ to $0.011\dotsc$ in base $2$
the two base $3$ expansions represent different numbers, but the two base $2$ expansions represent the same number
ok :) thanks (the other inequality I assume follows from $C$ being a subset of $[0,1]$)
yeah
you mean there are points out D?
yeah....
desmos.com/calculator/f67czrplck?lang=it: this is the correct link @pizza
so when you use "for x" you're including the region with $y\le 0$
19:18
yes as you told me when $x$ = 0, then $y$ = -2
i can see it in your graph
so for y is correct here
19:34
right
Would anyone know how to show the two inclusions at the bottom? I think it's enough to know here that $\Omega\in\operatorname{End}(V)$ is invertible and commutes with $\rho(x)$ for each $x\in\mathfrak g$ to argue that $V^+(\Omega)\subset V_{\operatorname{eff}}$ and $V^\mathfrak g\subset V^0(\Omega)$. However, I fail to show this. Any idea?
I should add that $V^+(\Omega)=\bigcap_n \Omega^n(V)$ and $V^0(\Omega)=\bigcup_n\ker\Omega^n$
19:54
I was thinking of using that invertibility of $\Omega$ and $\Omega\rho(x)=\rho(x)\Omega$ yields $\rho(x)=\Omega\rho(x)\Omega^{-1}$
but it leads to nowhere
ohh
I see now that the second inclusion can be shown from the definition of $\Omega$ (it is the Casimir element belonging to a certain ideal of the Lie algebra)
yea, and same for the other inclusion
ok, my problem is solved then
you're welcome
@SoumikMukherjee @AlessandroCodenotti Do you know duck chess?
I discovered it a couple of days ago watching Eric Rosen
20:06
@SineoftheTime I know it. It's pretty fun
so many chess players is chat:)
20:28
@SineoftheTime i need to put in ${0 \le y }$
?
why are you trying to compute this?
@SineoftheTime i mean for x its wrong, i need to fix it?
you don't have to do both, one sufficies
@SineoftheTime Indeed
I started playing OTB recently
"for y" is correct so compute the integral using it
@AlessandroCodenotti really? what time control?
20:32
@SineoftheTime yes
@AlessandroCodenotti nice
Fun fact : there is something called omega delta gambit in chess
imagine if it was called epsilon delta
I was thinking the same
@SineoftheTime 10+0 mostly, but just informal games so far
I hadn't played on a real board in years
me too
7years
Do you have a fide rating?
yes, around 1930 with the "correction"
Correction?
yeas basically who was under 2000 elo had a correction
now that I'm studying differential geometry, @ted left the chat :'(
20:53
yes, I also noticed that he is no longer in the chat
...
Bml
Bml
21:26
Hi everyone! I have read many great Calculus/Mathematical Analysis books such as Spivak, Apostol, Courant/John, Tao, Rudin, but I have not found a discussion of Riemann integrals related to pluri-rectangles, Peano-Jordan measure in bounded and un-bounded sets, etc. Can anyone recommend any text where this is properly addressed?
Bml
Bml
22:03
Some advice?
22:14
$$\iint_R f(x, y) \, dx \, dy = \int_{a}^{b} \int_{c}^{d} f(x, y) \, dy \, dx$$$$\int^\sqrt{y+2}_y\int^2_0xy \ \ \mathrm{dy}\ \mathrm{dx}$$$$\iint_R f(x, y) \, dx \, dy = \int_{c}^{d} \int_{a}^{b} f(x, y) \, dx \, dy$$$$\int^2_0\int^\sqrt{y+2}_yxy \ \ \mathrm{dx} \ \mathrm{dy}$$
is this wrong right?
22:31
last line is correct
23:30
@Bml what are pluri-rectangles?
@AlessandroCodenotti what are your axioms?
@SineoftheTime there's still Thorgott and Balarka

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