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Hi @Ted
Heya, Balarka!
$$2x - \frac{9x^2}{2} + \frac{73x^3}{6} + o(x^3) \approx 2x$$
~*
2x comes from here
I'm asking what the exact problem you are doing is, without using that.
i need to use that
19:02
It is incorrect to use that approximation if you need a Taylor polynomial of degree 2 or more.
i need to use this result
A strange curiosity: Given a smooth family of smooth embedded curves $C_t \subset \Bbb R^3$, can you choose a smooth family of smooth embedded minimal surfaces $D_t \subset \Bbb R^3$ bounding $C_t$?
No, you do not.
ok I guess it can't be done then
@Balarka I actually have no idea.
19:04
$$2x - \frac{9x^2}{2} + \frac{73x^3}{6} + o(x^3) \approx 2x$$
Alessandro. Stop.
but is correct said that right?
It depends on what error is allowed when you write $\approx$.
no I mean is it right to say that 2x is asymptotic to that result?
~*
i dont know how to insert this ~
It is too sloppy a statement. I will not agree with it.
19:06
and what could I do?
$2x-\frac{9x^2}2 = 2x + o(x^2)$, but that approximation may be useless.
You refuse to tell me the actual question as it was assigned.
was to solve this exercise:
wait
$$\log(1+3x) \cdot e^{x^2} - \sin(x)$$
and i did
I get those numbers I sent earlier
When you're doing the limit of $\frac{f(x)}{\log(1+x)-\tan x}$, WHAT precisely is $f(x)$?
@TedShifrin I was curious because it is not too hard to write a discontinuous family of smooth embedded minimal surfaces $D_t$ bounding a smooth family of smooth embedded minimal curves. (Think of, I guess, a pair of coaxial circles -- if they're too far you fill each by a planar disk, if they're too close you fill by a catenoid)
f(x) is the third order polynomial of the above function
19:09
But all these examples seem to involve passing through a time $t = t_0$ where the curve has some extra symmetries making it bound two distinct minimal surfaces, and for $t < t_0$ and $t > t_0$ patching the "two different branches" of families of surfaces.
$$\lim_{{x \to 0^+}} \frac{f(x)}{\log(1+x) - \tan(x)}$$
its also with lim
Yeah, Balarka, I was thinking about my exercise with two minimal (not both area-minimizing) catenoids with certain boundary circles. And as you vary the boundary circles continuous, there is some interesting behavior.
@Alessandro, then you must use the third-order polynomial, not first-order.
okk, so I write the whole result, without saying asymptotic to 2x?
19:13
What is the first nonzero term appearing in the Taylor expansion of the denominator?
ok wait
-x^2 / 2
log(1+x) = x - x^2/2 + o(x^2)
tan(x) = x + o(x^2)
So the Taylor polynomial of the denominator starts with an $x^2$. That means you MUST use a Taylor polynomial of degree/order $2$ or more for the numerator.
This is all explained in my handout.
but my result is -4/0
that is - infinity
on wolfram I find it correct
maybe it's just a coincidence
@TedShifrin Oh? Is he back?
I don't understand, I have to develop the numerator up to the second degree, but if I don't do it, why i found the correct result?
Maybe it's something I can't do
19:22
No, Tanner brought him up.
Wolfram is finding it correct because you're giving Wolfram the WRONG question.
You did NOT find the correct result. You are so stubborn.
@TedShifrin Ah, okay. Good.
@TedShifrin As I am told VSV would say: "You are not LISTENING!"
@Alessandro Truly, I am going to stop talking with you. You put in the WRONG question. That is the wrong numerator.
@Xander Who is VSV?
Oh, I know him by his actual name, not by his initials.
19:25
but I wrote that the result was asymptotic at 2x :(
He was the advisor of a very good friend of mine. It sounds like he was a slightly abusive advisor, but also a very dear friend and mentor at the end of the day.
@Alessandro I'm done. Reread everything I've typed. I have no more to say. Done.
@Xander I think Chern was probably the opposite ... too nice. Not that I deserved a nasty adviser.
so if I understand, I will write in the numerator all the results I obtained before
I'll proceed
@TedShifrin Heh.
From what little I know, Chern seems like he was a real mensch.
19:28
I have heard a lot about Varadarajan but I don't understand his math at all
itstill - infinity
@Xander There are some wonderful DVDs about him.
Didn't he do representation theory? That's my recollection.
Some mix of that, probability, ...
Quantum probability something something
@TedShifrin Yes, that is probably what he is best known for. But he also did some probability theory and mathematical physics.
OK, @Alessandro, the answer is that the limit does not exist but you need to understand that you cannot just do polynomials of whatever degree you want. If the numerator is $2x + o(x)$, then $\dfrac{2x+o(x)}{x^2+o(x^2)} = \dfrac{\frac 2x+ \frac{o(x)}{x^2}}{1+\frac{o(x^2)}{x^2}}$, and this limit becomes $\lim\dfrac{\frac2x}{1}$, which does not exist.
19:34
@TedShifrin oh really? That guy?
Tanner brought him up. Not I.
Didn't realize this is what the paper was about
He claimed he was solving the RH.
@TedShifrin thankss! :)
@TedShifrin Well, the title is saying he's "drawing connections" to RH
> employing advanced mathematical tools such as the Taylor series expansion, the argument principle, and the inverse Mellin transform
though listing Taylor series as advanced baffles me a little
19:38
Advanced mathematical tools that most undergraduate engineering students know.
@Jakobian He made more extravagant claims in chat.
None of those is advanced.
Undergraduate applied math students learn all that.
Not sure what argument principle is, and Mellin transform is advanced for me at least
Argument principle is from basic complex analysis. In every undergraduate complex analysis course.
Mellin transform is in every engineering math book.
um... what exactly is argument principle?
19:40
In complex analysis, the argument principle (or Cauchy's argument principle) is a theorem relating the difference between the number of zeros and poles of a meromorphic function to a contour integral of the function's logarithmic derivative. == Formulation == If f(z) is a meromorphic function inside and on some closed contour C, and f has no zeros or poles on C, then 1 2 π i ∮ C...
Integrating $f'/f$ around a closed curve counts zeroes - poles inside the curve. (Factor of $2\pi i$, as always in complex analysis.)
@Jakobian The argument principle is about the zeros and poles of a meromorphic function. It is usually taught in a first course on complex anal. The Mellin transform is likely a little more mysterious to most working mathematicians, but show shows up in physics and engineering a lot. It is also useful in complex anal, and shows up in the analysis of uh... Dirichlet series (is that the term I want?).
Yes... that's what I want: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dirichlet_series
I type too slow... :/
The argument principle also generalizes nicely to smooth functions and higher dimensions using degree of a mapping.
now I'm not sure if I knew about it before or if I'm hearing it for the first time
That was one of my favorite topics in teaching differential topology to prove the Hopf Degree Theorem (awesome theorem, Jakobian: two maps $M\to S^n$ — $M$ compact, oriented $n$-manifold — are homotopic iff they have the same degree).
Oh, and I should say (since I discussed this in a post on main recently) @Jakobian, that that holds for continuous maps, not just smooth maps.
19:45
ah yes, a classic calculation of cohomotopy!
My favorite application of Yoneda's lemma.
What is, a Balarka?
I never remember what Yoneda's lemma is. I remember that it came up once in algebraic topology, but that was 1974-5.
The Hopf degree theorem for continuous maps, that is.
Oh, how is it Yoneda?
I don't really see how Hopf generalizes the argument principle, to be honest
19:48
The proof of Hopf uses the generalization. You can excise little balls around the preimage points of a regular value and get that the global degree is the sum of local degrees.
You need to argue that if the net degree is $0$, for example, then you can cancel things out in pairs.
that's fair
but it's not a one statement implies the other kind of deal
I used to present this proof when I taught diff top.
I never said that.
I said "to prove the Hopf theorem"
Read carefully.
@TedShifrin It's a bit cheeky, but here goes: Let $K(\Bbb Z, n)$ denote Eilenberg-MacLane space. One may check $X \mapsto [X, K(\Bbb Z, n)]$ is an assignment which satisfies all the axioms of an ordinary cohomology theory. Therefore, there must be a natural isomorphism $[X, K(\Bbb Z, n)] \to H^n(X; \Bbb Z)$ as there is only one ordinary cohomology theory upto isomorphism (Eilenberg-Steenrod). What Yoneda does for you in these situations is tell you what the isomorphism explicitly is.
I'm confused. A sphere is not a $K(\Bbb Z,n)$.
Ah, but $[M, S^n] = [M, K(\Bbb Z, n)]$!
If $M$ is an $n$-dimensional closed manifold.
19:52
Oh, cellular approximation blah blah.
In my retirement, I'm forgetting more than I knew.
this is unironically how I think about this result
shame on me, I know
though I prefer constructing an explicit isomorphism $[X,K(\mathbb{Z},n)]\rightarrow H^n(X;\mathbb{Z})$ to the axiomatic approach
I learned a lot working that one out
Yeah, I hate axiomatic bullshit.
As I said, it's very cheeky.
19:56
Well, this was all very educational :) All because of the "advanced" argument principle.
Maybe the OP can find use of this jacked up version in their "proof" of Riemann Hypothesis
We sincerely hope, yeah?
well, neither the fact that the Eilenberg-MacLane spectrum represents ordinary cohomology nor the cellular approximation are quite easy
so this "cheeky" method still requires genuine effort
mumble mumble Postnikov towers ...
That, too, goes back to 1975.
everything is "just" the yoneda lemma
Cellular approximation at least is quite geometric.
19:59
I love the beautiful PL topology proof of cellular approximation in Hatcher.
@Balarka Do you sorta get the relevance of my remarks about the catenoids?
Yeah, I did. I'll have to see what happens with the two catenoids to see if I can make use of that.
I can find this in your book, yes?
This was exercise 16 on p. 43-44.
Thanks!
I can send you a Mathematica graph of the answer, if you need.
20:02
Maybe I will fiddle with the exercise a bit first before asking :)
I think the fact that there are unstable and non-minimizing minimal surfaces makes these things hard/subtle, but the experts certainly know the answer to your question.
I love going back to your diffgeo book/lecture notes, btw. I had to go back and re-learn the Crofton formula a while ago.
I'm actually proud of a number of exercises in there that appear nowhere else.
Did I tell you Donaldson and Gromov use the Crofton formula left right and center to prove surprising results in symplectic geometry?
I was amazed
Crofton shows up all over in various guises. Griffiths's paper (with a serious error) on Milnor numbers and singularities was based on versions of Crofton ... and led to my Ph.D. thesis, too.
20:04
It's so weird! It shows up in places where it has no business being.
Integral geometry is boss.
It's all about flag manifolds and integration over the fiber :)
@BalarkaSen I've always found that one unreadable
pops popcorn and waits for a fight
20:09
How could you?! jk
I think Balarka and I have mellowed out too much to argue over such a small thing
That's a disappointment :D
It's true, alas.
still haven't read a proof of Blakers-Massey because they all are too PL for me
Oh yeah I love that one too
20:11
perhaps I should learn it from Brown :P
Oh no!
This geometric topology stuff is all stuff I know zero about.
But at least I know how to prove Gauss Bonnet by seeing that the Euler class is Poincaré dual to a particularly important Schubert cycle in the oriented Grassmannian :D
That was a proof I never found written down anywhere.
I learnt a little bit of Schubert calculus once but never quite got proficient at it.
I'm a fan ... and a fan of doing duality by explicit moving-frames integral computations with curvature forms. Who cares about torsion, anyway.
Those ideas were all in Chern's original papers from the 50s.
Balarka, I hope you're teaching some of your cohorts the beauties of moving frames :P
I am not nearly as skilled in it, but I am teaching a bunch of people about pseudoholomorphic curves and almost all computations I do in moving frames.
It is a nightmare to prove Weitzenbock formula without moving frames, say.
20:18
I should have taught you better :)
Yeah, but Weitzenbock is a pointwise thing. That's just choosing a frame so that the connection vanishes at a point.
Or rather I should have picked some of the moving frames to characteristic class viewpoint up from your course notes.
I've learned Schubert calculus, but sadly it's not that useful from the AlgTop perspective
@TedShifrin Right, it's not really a serious expositional choice.
No, it's a lot more meaningful in algebraic geometry and singularity theory.
It showed up all over in my integral geometry work, too, but that was a long time ago.
I got too Gromov-pilled and stopped doing differential geometry computations to try to understand differential geometry better.
He never does computations, maddening how he still understands.
20:22
He's smarter than we are.
And Chern could do a 3-page moving frames computation in his head (like his original Gauss Bonnet proof). He just knew what would happen.
$$\sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty} (-1)^n \cdot \log(1+\sin(\sqrt{n+1}-\sqrt{n}))$$
It's so easy to mess up. Takes skill
20:23
How do I understand if I can use Leibniz here?
I was reading an old paper of Kronheimer-Mrowka recently and found it riddled with errors
the idea is the series has a constant sign
@TedShifrin I can't do a 3-page moving frames computation in 10 pages :P
I made the limit of the sin, and it tends to 0, so the log tends to a positive quantity
I kinda miss doing differential geometry computations
20:25
I do moving frames computations quite painlessly. And if someone writes down a page of covariant derivative symbols, I just tune out.
it's the type of thing you start being very bad at if you don't do it very regularly
can someone confirm my idea?
@Alessandro You need to know how it tends to $0$. Is it $o(1)$, $o(1/n)$, $o(1/n^2)$ ... ?
Oh, I guess with the $(-1)^n$, you just need to know that the terms decrease in size.
You were writing o in your work earlier.
20:26
@TedShifrin I'm fine with it as long as it's not in components. If I can't do something coordinate-free I have the feeling I cannot do it
And I assure that is painful when you are a physicist :P
Moving frames is not about components at all.
Physicists do everything in coordinates and with tortured tensor notation. I can't deal with it. They hate differential forms.
but don't I have to see if Leibniz can be used or not?
You don't come across a physicist every day in the wild saying "If I can't do something coordinate-free I have the feeling I cannot do it"
Yes yes, I meant that I'm fine with covariant derivatives as long as they're not written by components
Yes, it is about Leibniz. What do you need for that?
20:28
@TedShifrin It depends on the level, though. More advanced courses use differential forms more afaik
Most physicists hate them. I have it on good authority from close friends who are physicists.
the teacher told me that I have to do a check on the logarithm, but it's definitely not that decreasing thing
I came across a meme clip a while ago where a guy was doing index computations and ran out of boardspace so he started saying it out loud and it went "mew new mew mew plus new mew new ..."
@AlessandroTerminiello you can rationalize and the use Taylor
physics exposition tends to be painfully coordinate-dependent
20:30
@Thorgott mew new mew mew plus new mew new new
I remember having to do write down the geodesic equation in coordinates in like a first- or second-semester physics course
@SineoftheTime I have to use leibniz
@TedShifrin I see. Are they possibly more into General Relativistic stuff? I don't expect people who deal with gauge theory to hate differential forms, for example
@BalarkaSen lol
@SineoftheTime but I should first see if it can be used
I know that i need to set the limit of a_n which tends to +infinity and which must be equal to 0. Then I have to verify that the sequence a_n decreases
right?
20:31
@Mr.Feynman I know people in gauge theory who write nothing in differential forms
$F_{\mu \nu} F^{\mu \nu}$ all the way
@Thorgott Imagine the pain I have to bear now doing GR, where I write it as $k^\mu k_{\nu;\mu}=0$
And then theres abomination like $A_{\mu;[\nu} B_{\rho}^\nu]$
but first I should do log (of the argument) > 0 , but I don't know why
@BalarkaSen ew
@AlessandroTerminiello $\log(1+\sin (\sqrt{n+1}-\sqrt n))=\log(1+\sin(\frac1{\sqrt{n+1}+\sqrt n}))\sim \log (1+\frac1{\sqrt{n+1}+\sqrt n}) \sim \frac1{\sqrt{n+1}+\sqrt n}\sim \frac1{2\sqrt n}$. Hence your original series is asymptotically equivalent to $\sum \frac {(-1)^n}{2\sqrt n}$
20:35
But to be honest I got used to work with indices too, although I don't plan to keep doing it forever. The problem is when it's difficult to translate something that only seems a notation game into real differential geometry
@SineoftheTime ok but
but so the step of seeing if the log is > 0 is useless?
The thing I'm having most trouble with in GR are lightlike hypersurfaces (i.e. hypersurfaces on which the restriction of the metric tensor is zero). Do you happen to know any differential geometry book discussing those?
Being "generated" by geodesic, introducing a notion of integration via a "transverse" metric are all things that I don't find to be compelling reading GR books
alessandro, the key is that the log thing [eventually] has constant sign. it isn't so important whether it's [eventually] positive or [eventually] negative, because a sign difference like that would not affect convergence or the application of the test.
@SineoftheTime
Sorry **on which the normal is null (the metric tensor is *not zero)
20:40
@AlessandroTerminiello it depends on how do you want to solve it. Comparison test and then Leibniz seems the fastest route
@leslietownes uh ok
@SineoftheTime ok but so log > 0 is useless?
what method would that be?
it sounds like you're working through someone else's solution? it might help to ask that person. they would maybe be more familiar with what you have and haven't seen, or are "allowed to use"
by comparison test, you need to apply Leibniz to $\frac1{\sqrt n}$
ok, what if i resolve it as you are saying? How should i do
is $\sum \frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt n}$ convergent?
i have to use leibniz
i read bad before
its -1
i read 1
sorry
yep
it converges for leibniz
because 1) lim a_n tends to 0 , 2) a_n is decresing
what can you say about the original problem now?
20:50
the key is that the log thing [eventually] has constant sign. it isn't so important whether it's [eventually] positive or [eventually] negative, because a sign difference like that would not affect convergence or the application of the test.
what this mean
@leslietownes
@SineoftheTime the series converges by asymptotic comparison
it sounds like you were working through a solution where someone is checking the hypotheses of a theorem about series of the form (-1)^n b_n or (-1)^{n+1} b_n. checking that the sequence b_n has eventually constant sign would be part of applying this kind of theorem.
if you don't know at all why someone would be worried about whether b_n would be positive in analyzing a series of the form sum (-1)^n b_n, i suggest asking whoever presented what you describe as " the step of seeing if the log is > 0" why that is worth doing or necessary
it sounds like this "step" was not your idea
i'm hesitant to suggest more detail because i don't know what techniques you are or are not familiar with
in reality, the teacher told me something like this
20:55
there are really two questions, is the series convergent (it seems like the answer is yes), and how can we see that the series is convergent using tests that are known to you. the second part is trickier than the first
the reason books have hypothesis like "b_n > 0" in theorems about sum (-1)^n b_n is that if the sequence b_n does not have constant sign, you may have no control over what the sign of (-1)^n b_n is, and in particular, sum (-1)^n b_n might not be an "alternating series"
for a theorem like that, it isn't so important that b_n be always positive, or even eventually positive. it is important that b_n eventually not change sign
so that (-1)^n b_n is something that alternates in sign
so leibniz I can always use it if I have a (-1)^n * something?
that theorem likely has other hypotheses that might be difficult to verify in this case. a standard way of showing that a sequence b_n of positive numbers is eventually decreasing is to find a function of a real variable f(x) with b_n = f(n) and to use calculus to show that the sign of f'(x) is eventually negative
i would start on an easier example of a problem of this type before doing this one
@Mr.Feynman That's more mathematicians than physicists. My impression is that the truly mathematical theoretical physicists form a very small percentage of physicists.
If $G$ is a compact Lie group with biinvariant metric $g$ and $H$ is a closed subgroup, then $H$ is an embedded submanifold of $G$ and so $i^{*}g$ restricted to $H$ is bi-invariant too. Now my question is, and this might be stupid, if $d_{g}$ is the induced Riemannian distance on $G$ does $d_{g}$ and $d_{i^*g}$ coincide on $H$?
21:05
@leslie Interesting point. If $a_n = b_n + O(1/n^2)$ and $b_n>0$ decreases, then Leibniz should work for $\sum (-1)^n a_n$. But I do not recall discussing this in a class.
@TedShifrin That is indeed true. It's what I aim to be nonetheless
@monoidal As with any Riemannian manifold/submanifold, iff $H$ is totally geodesic.
I.e., the second fundamental form vanishes.
You can work that out all in terms of the Lie algebra information.
If $H$ is connected, then its totally geodesic?
ted: yes, one thing we are running into here is that none of those "alternating series test" theorems are "if and only if" and even when such a test does apply, it might not be the simplest approach. so, maybe a gap between what the chat might come up with and what a student is supposed to do using a textbook theorem as a black box
@Ted: Silly question, suppose $f : \Bbb H^2 \to \Bbb H^3$ is an isometric embedding in the Riemannian sense (pullback of induced Riemannian metric in the codomain under embedding agrees with the Riemannian metric in the domain). Does that mean image of $f$ is necessarily totally geodesic?
This is not true for $S^2$ in $\Bbb R^3$, certainly.
21:10
i have not seen a textbook exercise introduce the idea of applying an alternating series test to only 'part' of a convergent series, even if that's easier than analyzing the behavior of the 'full' series
@monoidaltransform NO, not remotely.
@leslie I've seen books that totally overlook the fact that $a_n$ fails to be decreasing, but it is eventually and that's all that matters.
long time no see @Balarka how's life?
Hi @AlessandroCodenotti. I'm alright, how about you?
@BalarkaSen I don't see why that should be the case. As I just said to monoidal, it is about the second fundamental form.
hi im good thanks
21:13
Hi, demonic !!
ah
i think you tag the wrong alessandro : |
Any two people with the same first 4 letters get tagged.
Last names are irrelevant.
Corrected.
@TedShifrin True, maybe I should compute. It's hard to imagine.
21:14
can i ask the last thing about series
If you think about the Lorentz hyperbolic models, then you can see it in terms of the slicing hyperplane @Balarka
It's just like for spheres in spheres.
$$\sum_{{n=2}}^{\infty} a^n \tan\left(\frac{\sqrt{n^2+n} - \sqrt{n^2+1}}{3^n+n^3}\right) \sim \frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{a}{3}\right)^n$$ , i need to use D'Alembert criterion right?
Ah, that's smart!!
I love that
ted: related to that, the business of not minding the lower index of summation when spamming out a list of textbook exercises about sum n = "1" to infinity of 1/(n(n-5)), or 1/ln(ln(ln(n))), or whatever
@leslie That's why I usually don't write the lower index :D
@BalarkaSen It happens, by chance, once in a while :)
21:16
Ah right ofcourse. Going back to my original question, out of curiosity, what if $H$ is also simple and compact, then since bii-invariants metrics on simple compact Lie groups are unique up to scalar then does that mean that $d_{i^*g}=ad_g$ for some scalar a?
All good @Balarka, I started a new job about a month ago. I'm back in Italy now and I'm much happier than when I lived in Germany
Too many Alessandros. @AlessandroTerminiello, pick new name. @AlexanderGruber, you too. It is getting confusing. :P
I don't know without some serious thought, monoidal.
Alex Gruber gets priority. He's been around foreverest.
give me a new name
i will change
@AlessandroCodenotti That's nice!
21:20
Leibniz :)
Don Giovanni :)
Dom Pérignon :)
@SineoftheTime banned.
21:23
Xander is like a scuffed version of Alexander
2
@monoidal I really think you have to look at the structure constants relative to the splitting $\mathfrak h\oplus\mathfrak k$.
@BalarkaSen It is the alcohol free version.
$$\sum_{{n=2}}^{\infty} a^n \tan\left(\frac{\sqrt{n^2+n} - \sqrt{n^2+1}}{3^n+n^3}\right) \sim \frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{a}{3}\right)^n$$ , i need to use D'Alembert criterion right?
i changed my name
@XanderHenderson 'cause there's no ale.
3
21:32
@BalarkaSen math wise the project here is pretty cool even though I have to (re)learn a bunch of algebraic topology and category theory
Some might even consider this a plus
Oh that sounds interesting
@AlessandroCodenotti the #1 Münster hater
The basic idea goes back to the very beginning of AT but it was not explored much. People wanted to think about cohomology groups (and other algebraic invariants) as topological groups, but this is kind of terrible because coboundaries are almost never closed in the cocyles, so the topology on the quotient is all messed up
Yay! My new glasses are ready! Gonna go pick them up after office hours end in 20 minutes.
Anyone here need help with precalc? None of my students have shown up... :/
So the solution turns out to be to think about those invariants as "groups with a Polish covers" that is groups explicitely presented as the quotient of a Polish group (the cover, cocyles for example) by a Polishable subgroup (coboundaries) and to say that a morphism between Polishable subgroups is a definable morphism, in the sense that it lifts to a Borel map between their covers
The category of abelian groups with a Polish cover turns out to be the canonical completion to an Abelian category of the category of Polish abelian groups (whatever that means) so they are apparently great objects to work with
And they give somewhat finer invariants than just the cohomology groups as discrete groups
21:39
"polishable" lol
Is that "polishable" or "Polishable"?
do these have a reasonable homotopy theory
I know nothing about the homotopy side of this whole business
cause what you really wanna do, alg-topologically speaking, if you wanna work finer than cohomology is consider the cochain complex
I barely know anything about the classical version of homotopy theory
21:40
as object in some appropriate $\infty$-category, most likely
uh oh the infinity pill is dropped
i say "homotopy", you say "coherent"
@AlessandroCodenotti a morphism between groups with a Polish cover*
@Thorgott I dont think this carries more information than homology in general, tbf.
The appropriate infinity-category is just going to be the dg derived category of chain complexes
it should, even without all the fancy terminology
like you get higher cup products on the cochain level
the cup-1 stuff or whatever
21:42
Thats not just the chain complex
we can always add structure
Yeah then you're thinking of C*(X) as an E_infty-operad or whatever
E_infty-algebra* rather
ye, something like that
@AlessandroCodenotti Sounds cool. BTW, I still want to know the answer to the "2-dimensional dendrite" question I asked you long back
What was the question? I forgot
21:56
I think it was the following: define a "tree 2-complex" to be a cell complex which is locally homeomorphic to either R^2, (R^2 with a half-plane glued by its edge along the x-axis) or (R^2 with a half-plane glued by its edge along the x-axis, and a half plane glued by its edge along the y-axis (Rmk. these glued half-planes do not intersect in the interior)).
Can one define a "2-dimensional dendrite" as an appropriate inverse limit of "tree 2-complexes"?
This was motivated by a comment you made which I think shows this is indeed true in dimension 1.

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