In mathematics, an ordered basis of a vector space of finite dimension n allows representing uniquely any element of the vector space by a coordinate vector, which is a sequence of n scalars called coordinates. If two different bases are considered, the coordinate vector that represents a vector v on one basis is, in general, different from the coordinate vector that represents v on the other basis. A change of basis consists of converting every assertion expressed in terms of coordinates relative to one basis into an assertion expressed in terms of coordinates relative to the other basis.Such...
when you write $w_j$ in terms of $v_i$, the matrix is basically transposed in the definition
beats me. do you want more examples specific to rational points on elliptic curves (i.e. fixing this type of Gamma, trying to identify other height functions)? or examples for other Gammas entirely?
these conditions (and suggestive name of the theorem) make the concept look like something someone cooked up just to make an argument go through, so it seems at first glance like maybe identifying more than one h for a given gamma is not "interesting." is that right?
If I want to compute the run-time for $T(n) = aT(\frac{n}{b}) + f(n)$, $T(1) = 1$, $a, b > 0$ why can't I simply argue that $T(n) = \sum_{i=0}^{log_{b}n} a^{i}f(\frac{n}{b^i})$?
@leslietownes Examples for other Gammas. For an arbitrary commutative group how can we make such a height function.
This proof is given as a general proof of Mordell's theorem that states the group of rational points on elliptic curve is finitely generated.
@leslietownes Yes, the height function that I wrote above does its job for group on elliptic curves. But I am asking about height functions on an arbitrary commutative group.
well, "arbitrary" won't quite work, right? simply because not all commutative groups are finitely generated... if you know in advance that the group is finitely generated, does the structure theorem help?
e.g. is n mapsto |n| (or some silly modification) a height function on Z, and could you piece together that with height functions on other copies of Z to get one for any direct sum of those things and a finite abelian group (where it looks like any function would be a height function)
if the height function is primarily a widget that you use to prove that an abstractly defined abelian group is finitely generated, it seems like constructing one could be potentially difficult, if only because it seems rare/hard to me [a non algebraist] to be confronted with a group where you wouldn't have that information in advance
@leslietownes Condition (d) is also needed to conclude that the group is finitely generated. So can't it be that an arbitrary group may have a height function but is not finitely generated?
well, sure, i also just don't know of a lot of interesting examples of non-finitely-generated abelian groups (other than ones you might construct using e.g. abstract constructions and large sets)
i don't know the context, but the fact that any finitely generated abelian group satisfies (d) [e.g. from the classification theorem for such things] suggests that whether (d) holds or not might not be the focus of attention for general groups where you might be looking for height functions
might be worth a MSE post? maybe it relates to some interesting math in situations where you can't make a full descent argument work but there is a next best thing
I must prove that $f(X) \setminus f(A)\subseteq f(X\setminus A)$ for $A\subseteq X$ and $f:X\to Y$. Let $y \in f(X) \setminus f(A)$, this means $y \in f(X)$ and $y \notin f(A)$. Hence, there exists $x \in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ and there is no $a\in A$ such that $y=f(a)$. Hence there exists $x \in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ and $y\ne f(a)$ for each $a\in A$. Since $A \subseteq X$, this means that there exists $x \in X \setminus A$ such that $y=f(x)$ and finally $y\in f(X\setminus A)$. Is this right?
Let R be a unital ring, M be an R-module and K be a free module over R. What is the form of R-module homomorphisms from M to K?
I have been thinking about this problem for a while and I couldn't come up with anything at all. The inverse situation is a lot simpler since the homomorphism will be completely determined by the image of the basis elements but in this case since M is somewhat arbitrary, the only homomorphism that I know to work is just the trivial one.
the point is that $R^n$ is both a direct sum and a direct product, a homomorphism with codomain $R^n$ is the same data as $n$ homomorphisms with codomain $R$ (the components)
Let $\Gamma$ be a commutative group. Let there be a function $h:\Gamma\to[0,\infty)$ with the following properties.
For every real number $M$, the set $\{P\in\Gamma : h(P)\leq M\}$ is finite.
For every $P_0\in\Gamma$, there is a constant $k_0$ so that $h(P+P_0)\leq2h(P)+k_0$ for all $P\in\Gamma...
I was reading about polynomial rings from the book "Topics in Algebra" by IN Herstein.
Particularly, I was going through a computation given on Pg-157, Section-3.9. I am going to quote the portion that I am talking about. Here it is:
Let $F$ be the field of rational numbers and consider the polyn...
@Jakobian I interpret the 0 in $(a_0 - b_0) + (a_1 - b_1 )t +(a_2 - b_2 )t^2=0$ as $A.$ But how do they assert," whence $$(a_0 - b_0 ) + (a_1 - b_1 )x + (a_2 - b_2 )x^2$$ is in $A = (x^3 - 2)$" ?
In this answer, they prove by contradiction that if a closed set has a supporting hyperplane at every point of its boundary, then it is convex. I do not really understand the contradiction in the answer.
We assume $C$ is not convex, so there exists points $p,q$ in $C$ such that some of the line segment is outside of $C$. In particular, the line segment must go through a point where there's a hyperplane separating $p$ and $q$, and apparently that's a contradiction. Contradicting what?
I think I should delete the OP now, since the problem is resolved. But I think, it was not quite right for the author to write $2+0=2$ as $2+A=2+0=2$ seems absurd. Would you agree @Jakobian ?
@Jakobian haha it's just this one proof of a theorem in a real analysis book that I'm currently reading that is completely absurd :) and I've been forced to look at alternative proofs and have stumbled upon convex analysis
This is Robert Israel's answer https://math.stackexchange.com/a/27290/27978 marginally expanded.
It is clear that $C \subset H$.
Suppose $ p \notin C$, choose $x \in C^\circ$ and let $t = \sup \{ s \in [0,1] | x+\lambda(p-x) \in C \ \forall \lambda \in [0,s]\}$.
Since $C^c$ and $C^\circ$ are o...
I was reading about polynomial rings from the book "Topics in Algebra" by IN Herstein.
Particularly, I was going through a computation given on Pg-157, Section-3.9. I am going to quote the portion that I am talking about. Here it is:
Let $F$ be the field of rational numbers and consider the polyn...
@Jakobian The clarifications seemed to be a fix temporarily. It seems that I got into a lot more trouble than expected when I proceeded. I edited the OP and made the necessary changes.
elements of $\text{SO}(3)$ correspond to unit quaternions by $v\mapsto qv\overline{q}$
which ones correspond to rotation by angle pi
oh, the ones for which real part is $0$
I see how this is impossible now
If such $A$ existed, then it would correspond to unit quaternion $q_0$ such that $q_0q$ has real part $0$ when $q$ does. But then setting $q = i, j, k$ we have that $q_0$ has to be real. But then $q_0 = \pm 1$ which corresponds to the identity rotation
Consider the closed unit ball $\overline{\mathbb B ^n}$, and let $\sim$ be some equivalence relation on $\overline{\mathbb B ^n}$ that only identifies points on the boundary $\mathbb S ^{n-1}$ of $\overline{\mathbb B ^n}$, that is, if $x,y\in \overline{\mathbb B ^n}$ are such that $x\sim y$ and $...
Jakobian, do you understand why in Robert Israel's hint we can choose a $0<t<1$ such that $tp$ is on the boundary of $C$? I guess one has to choose a $p\not\in C$ sufficiently close to $C$ for that to be possible.
@copper.hat yeah psie was struggling with the proof that a closed set with non-empty interior which has supporting hyperplane at every point of the boundary is convex
so I've linked your proof
@TedShifrin If you look at homomorphism from unit quaternions to $SO(3)$, then I figured it boils down to some unit quaternion which maps unit quaternions with zero real part to themselves by left multiplication. But that makes it $\pm 1$ which corresponds to the identity matrix
@copper.hat I have a question. Regarding this answer and the comments below, if you can show that the point $p$ is on the other side of hyperplane, have you then shown convexity of the set $C$? This seems to be the goal of the OP.
@psie If $H$ is the intersection of the supporting hyperplanes and $C$ is the original set, you have $C \subset H$ by construction. So, to finish, we need to show equality. If they are equal, then since $H$ is convex you are finished. To show equality we suppose $p \notin C$ and show that $p \notin H$.
@copper.hat Ok, could you explain why, in your answer, you define $t = \sup \{ s \in [0,1] | x+\lambda(p-x) \in C \ \forall \lambda \in [0,s]\}$ and why is it in $(0,1)$? You write this is because $C^c$ and $C^\circ$ are open. I don't understand that.
My schedule is a little busy. I'm going to have to decline at the moment. If you get back to me about it over Easter, I'd love to study it with you then :)
Let’s do it then. In the meantime I’ll be doing Pereq study on abelian cats
Weibel has that data in appendix more so than cftwm
It’s odd though. You learn about abelian cats but the book proceeds in an element wise fashion. Which of course is most natural for set based mathematicians (nearly every1)
There do exist element-free diagram chases but they’re not as popular
Well, I'm set there. Prof. Ben Martin is world renowned in the field. He and his collaborators came up with the function I study, and it's foundational to a major conjecture in the area.
If success on MSE is anything to go by, I could be okay; I don't know. I asked on Academia SE about whether it's an indicator and not many people think it is.