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03:00 - 21:0021:00 - 00:00

03:44
@Jakobian No idea. I don't observe that holiday.
Merry Tuesday!
Merry Wednesday
04:12
Happy Grinch!
4
 
1 hour later…
05:30
@TedShifrin It's better that you are a retired bum than still an active bum.
@robjohn I don't know about that; just so long as I'm not a homeless bum.
At least we live in an area where it does not get freezing cold outside very often.
Indeed. That's why we're so popular. :(
05:46
whole lotta neerdowells retire here from places like georgia :(((((
I have a super basic question. When someone writes something like $L=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac1{a_n}$, then $a_n$ is allowed to be $0$ for sufficiently small $n$, right? I'm asking because there is a ratio test for power series, and I'm reading two different statements of this test, one where they claim that $a_n\neq0$ for all $n$ and in the other where they claim $a_n\neq0$ for sufficiently large $n$.
@leslietownes peachy
psie the details of what is 'allowed' might depend on the author of a particular text or classroom setting, but for purposes of defining/considering the limit, one wouldn't need to require a_n nonzero for all n to make sense of things, as long as a_n is nonzero for all n sufficiently large
specifically in the context of power series, or even finite sums, you might wonder what is leading to people allowing a_n to be 0 and what sense they hope to make of things in that case
but i'd think of that as separate from a limit existence/calculation
ok 👍
it might be as simple as an author just wanting to generate quick examples (in the spirit of "just put a random polynomial as a denominator" or "just put ln(ln(ln(whatever))" and they don't want to bother checking if some arbitrarily chosen example maybe has some issues that affect only finitely many terms
06:04
makes sense
06:34
0
Q: Let $x$ be a nilpotent element and $y$ be a unit in a commutative ring $R$. If the elements $x,y$ do not commute, then is, $x+y$ is a unit in $R?$

Thomas FinleyLet $x$ be a nilpotent element and $y$ be a unit in a commutative ring $R$ with identity. Show that $x+y$ is also a unit in $R.$ If $y=1,$ is commutativity of $R$ necessary? Justify: If the elements $x,y$ do not commute, show that the above property does not hold. My solution goes like this: Let...

I need some help with this problem a bit.
06:49
uh, where you have written "does not hold" in the statement of the original problem, surely only "may not hold" is intended. it is possible to give examples of rings containing elements x and y that do not commute for which x + y is nevertheless a unit. the exercise is presumably to show, by example, that when x and y do not commute, the sum x + y is not necessarily a unit.
which is done e.g. in the answer someone just provided there :)
lots of static in the problem phrasing there. a commenter pointed out another issue with it.
07:23
I watched a movie where a dog gets depressed and stops eating so the dog is taken to a vet whom the owner tells that '"we gave our parrot with its cage to our neighbour and ever since it's behaving like this. And the parrot cage was always at a height, the dog never even saw the cage." The vet advises to bring the parrot back and install cctv in that room and they find out that the parrot speaks ''your meal is ready, your meal is ready" and the dog starts eating.
the parrot picked these lines from the owner and used to speak those lines in the absence of the owner and the dog would think it's the owner telling him to eat. :-)
I never saw such a movie before.
was there other stuff in the movie too or was it just that?
07:48
there was. But I liked this bit most.
:)
oh. if it was just that, i was thinking, that truly does sound one of a kind :)
it was a Russian movie (show?) called 'Soul healers' in english.
 
2 hours later…
09:24
why is it taking so much time to render?
is there any fix to this?
i have no idea, but what kind of psychopath would put "det" outside of math mode like that
Ohh I didn't realise there was \det as well.
why \cdots but literal "..." instead of \dots in the inline "v_1, ..., v_n"
I put \det inside now.
three backslashes in a row also marks you as a madman, just because latex ignores certain whitespace, that's no reason not to put it there
haha but in actual answer to your question i dunno
09:31
"p\in S" instead of "p \in S" also looks demented to me
Leslie, actually I put \\\ there because somehow \\ wasn't working.
I don't know why mse isn't rendering the mathjax as I type it. It's taking time to render.
too much time
i do know that the previewer code seems to be a different beast from what the renderer actually uses. or at least was for a long time (certain things which were maybe not orthodox mathjax would render one way in the previewer and another in posted answers)
\\ somehow not working feels like a sign that maybe something else is up. does mathjax know pmatrix? i suppose it must
I did pmatrix but then it placed v_i's in a single row
I disabled my adblocker and it started working fine again.
odd, but cool that you found a fix
10:04
@XanderHenderson I love the spirit of Christmas :D
For me its not religious or anything. More like tradition
10:34
@Koro instead of "..." you might use \dots, or \cdots, or better \vdots since it is a vertical array.
@robjohn sure, thanks.
As for the slowdown in rendering, I noticed that happening a long time ago, but I haven't seen it recently.
me too, it happens sometimes.
I guess it's due to adblockers.
disabling it fixed it for now.
11:00
0
Q: Orient the space $B$ such that the map $f: A\to B$ is orientation preserving.

KoroSetup: Suppose that $f: S\to \tilde S$ is a smooth map, where $S, \tilde S$ are oriented $n$- surfaces in $\mathbb R^{n+1}$ with smooth unit normals $N_1$ and $N_2$. Suppose that $Df_p$ is non singular for every $p\in S$. The derivative $f$ is said to be an orientation preserving map if for all...

@Thorgott could you please take a look at it? I saw your message but decided to respond with some calculations and definitions :)
Can someone check if my computation is correct (if you want)? I have to compute $f\star g$ where $f(x)=x\chi_{[0,+\infty[}(x)$ and $g(x)=\sin x\chi_{[0,+\infty[}(x)$ and I found that $f\star g=(x-\sin x)\chi_{[0,+\infty[}$
11:16
why do you have $\chi_{[0,+\infty[}$ in the end for f\star g?
when $x\le 0$, I found that the convolution is $0$
how?
$f\star g(u)= \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(t) g(u-t) dt= \int_0^\infty t g(u-t) dt= \int_0^u t \sin(u-t) dt$, no?
$f\star g(x)=\int_0^{+\infty} (x-y)\chi_{[0,+\infty[}(x-y)\sin y dy$ if $x\le 0$ then $x-y\le 0$ since $y\ge 0$ and $\chi_{[0,+\infty[}(x-y)=0$ for $y\ge 0$
For convolution definition, don't you take integral from -\infty to \infty?
Yes, but since there's $\sin y \chi_{[0,+\infty[}(y)$ I restricted the integral
11:29
hmm, right!!
@Koro the last equality is not true for u<0. For u<0, g(u-t)=0 as $t\ge 0$.
@SineoftheTime it looks correct to me.
thank you for your time :)
12:03
@leslietownes I agreed with your previous points, but this is something I do too...
@Koro $df_p\colon S_p\rightarrow\tilde{S}_p$ is an isomorphism of vector space, so it is always true that if you fix an orientation of $\tilde{S}_p$, then there is some choice orientation of $S_p$ that makes $df_p$ orientation-preserving. this has nothing to do with manifolds yet.
the crux with manifolds is that you want the orientation of $S_p$ to "continuously depend on $p$" in some sense
this is ensured by taking orientations induced from a normal vector field, which continuously (or even smoothly) depends on $p$
however, consider $df_p$ as before. for each $p$, it is either orientation-preserving or orientation-reversing.
using continuity of the determinant, we see that if $df_p$ is orientation-preserving or -reversing, the same holds for all $df_q$ for $q$ in some neighborhood of $p$
then, in the connected case, it follows that $df_p$ either preserves the orientation for all $p$ or reverses it for all $p$
in the former case, $f$ is orientation-preserving, in the latter case $f$ is orientation-reversing and becomes orientation-preserving if you switch the orientation on one of the two spaces (e.g. by inverting the normal vector field)
12:27
0
Q: Is this 3D algebra $T$ power-associative?

mickConsider a commutative 3D algebra $T$ where the nonreal units $x,y$ satisfy $$x^2 = A_1 + A_2 x + A_3 y $$ $$xy = B_1 + B_2 x + B_3 y$$ $$y^2 = C_1 + C_2 x + C_3 y$$ where all the parameters $A_1,A_2,..$ are real ofcourse. So for instance we get $$(a + b x + cy)^2 = a^2 + b^2 A_1 + 2bc B_1 + c^2 ...

some 3D algebra LHF i think
12:53
@Jakobian That's great for you. But it kind of indicates that you grew up in a Christian-dominant culture, and are not specifically non-Christian. I'm Jewish. Christmas doesn't mean much to me. Just a lot of commercialism and bad music.
I did. We've used to go to Church when I was little. Well I'm an atheist but I still associate Christmas with good memories like decorating the Christmas tree
There ya go.
user587860
13:28
Does hyperbolic 3-space H_3 admit an isometric embedding into C^4?
14:02
Does $\Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z\cong 5\Bbb Z/10\Bbb Z$ as rings?
I feel that this is not true
Did you have a look in this survey article? I don't think such an embedding is possible. A Riemannian $n$-manifold of constant negative sectional curvature cannot be isometrically immersed in $E^{2n−2}$. — Dietrich Burde Feb 24, 2018 at 16:54
@Supersymmetry
I think they are only isomorphic as groups
This question was given to us by our professor, and I think that it's incorrect.
@ThomasFinley Why wouldn't they be?
@ThomasFinley Rather than asking us if something is true, why not just write it out.
Neither set has all that many elements. It shouldn't be hard.
14:20
No response?
@XanderHenderson $$\Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z=\{2\Bbb Z,2\Bbb Z+1\}$$ and $$5\Bbb Z/10\Bbb Z=\{10\Bbb Z,10\Bbb Z+5\}$$
Did I miss something?
I am feeling strange
did you hydrate properly?
@Jakobian maybe no
I didn't ask you to write out representations of the two rings. I asked you to write "it" out. Write out the problem.
Check the addition and multiplication.
Do something for yourself. Don't just rely on others to spoonfeed you the answers.
@XanderHenderson wait, the representation I wrote is not correct, no? Reading jakobian's comment makes me believe I wrote it incorrect.
14:27
@ThomasFinley I don't care if it is "correct" or "incorrect". I made no comment on that.
@XanderHenderson But before that, I need if I am making no mistake with the basics.
@XanderHenderson That makes it more confusing, you know!
Moreover, I don't even know what "correct" or "incorrect" would mean. You have two sets, each of which has two elements. I don't really care how you label those elements. You are asking a question about rings---there is more structure there.
What happens when you add two elements?
Or when you multiply them?
Never mind making mistakes, the more important is your thought process about getting from point A to point B, that is, you're claiming the two rings are not isomorphic, why is it so?
@XanderHenderson I know the bijection $2\Bbb Z+1\mapsto 10\Bbb Z+5$ and $2\Bbb \mapsto 10\Bbb Z$ and I verified this is an isomorphism.
I didn't ask you about bijectiions or isomorphisms. I asked you to describe the ring structure on each of the two sets you described. But if you have constructed an explicit isomorphism, what else is there to do?
14:31
@XanderHenderson Ha ha, nothing. Ok, I got it. I was correct after all.
Maybe I got that strange feeling just like that. I must ignore them (henceforth).
@XanderHenderson and @Jakobian But thanks for correcting me, when I was too hasty.
I wouldn't ignore such feelings, but part of developing mathematical maturity is understanding when what you have done is correct.
You have to think.
@XanderHenderson I agree.
In any event, I really hate your notation. It think it obfuscates things. $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$ consists of two sets: $[0]$ and $[1]$ (the equivalence classes of $0$ and $1$, respectively). If you write things out in this way, it is much easier to do the arithmetic (thinking of addition and multiplication modulo $2$).
You can do something similar for $5\mathbb{Z} /10\mathbb{Z} = \{[0],[5]\}$. it is then much easier to verify that sending $[1]$ to $[5]$ does what you want it to do. Or, alternatively, you can use the uniqueness of rings with a prime number of elements.
(which is something you were working on yesterday)
Yeah. That the only (non-commutative, non-unital) rings with $p$ elements are the ring with trivial multiplication and $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$
So you'd have to verify multiplication in $5\mathbb{Z}/10\mathbb{Z}$ is non-trivial, say by computing $[5]^2$
@Jakobian yes, never thought it like that.
14:43
@Thorgott I don't understand why df_p is orientation preserving? Can you please explain that?
@ThomasFinley I mean, I wouldn't have generally taken that approach, but you were developing that tool yesterday. Most books are written in such a way that the material presented in one section is likely to be relevant in the next section or two. [Good] authors choose to present ideas so that they flow.
When you learn about a new tool or definition or result, you should expect to use that tool or definition or result in the future. It should become part of your "kit".
@XanderHenderson Actually, I am comfortable with either of those notations but I just use them interchangeably. But yes, I never thought about the second approach to the problem as you mentioned.
@XanderHenderson One thing, I thought it not so important, because of my lack of experience with working on problems, maybe. But yes, I will add that tool now, to my "kit".
I don't think using notations interchangeably is a good practice
The latest question that I asked on mse will remain unanswered.
@ThomasFinley The point of notation is to more clearly communicate ideas. The advantage of writing equivalence classes as $[n]$ (rather than thinking of them as sets with elements like $m\mathbb{Z} + n$) is that you can actually do arithmetic with $[n]$ much more concisely, which means that the ideas are communicated more clearly.
A ton of problems in mathematics are solved simply by using the right notation.
14:48
@XanderHenderson Oh! I will surely keep it in mind.
15:15
by using the right definition
15:35
More progress on this question!
14
Q: How many ways to arrange $n$ points in $(\Bbb F_q)^2$ with no three collinear?

Akiva WeinbergerHow many ways are there to arrange $n$ points in the finite field plane $(\Bbb F_q)^2$ with no three of the points collinear? An easy upper bound is $(q^2)^n=q^{2n}$, but of course it's less than that. (Of course, if I asked the same question over $\Bbb R^2$, it would be infinite.) The collineari...

15:55
I just noticed that the mean square has become the green square:)
@SoumikMukherjee Well, if you were average, you might become envious.
@SoumikMukherjee But the snarl indicates green grinch.
@TedShifrin Which sounds like "Gingrich". OH NO!
16:23
You had to go there~
@SoumikMukherjee I think Thomas meant that he's comfortable with both of them
Well he wrote about using them interchangeably also
16:39
@Koro I didn't say that
keep in mind that "being orientation-preserving" is not a property of linear maps between vector spaces, it is a property of linear maps between vector spaces with chosen orientations
@Thorgott Yet another proponent of critical manifold theory!
Okay, so, given a ring $R$ and a (finite) list of pairwise-zero-multiplying idempotents $e_i$ (so $e_i^2=e_i$ and $e_ie_j=0$ when $i\neq j$), then $\sum_{i=0}^ne_i$ acts as the identity on each $e_i$ used in the sum. Is there an additional condition that would be sufficient for this sum to be the identity?
I don't think it is appropriate to be talking about orientations in this room! This is a public forum, and is meant to be largely apolitical. Get your "chosen orientations" out of here!
17:09
lmao
@Rithaniel they should generate the ring
17:21
Yeah, that one's certainly sufficient. Then you can easily show that the sum acts as the identity on any element of the ring
oh, there's an issue, you didn't specify non-trivial, so your list contains the identity
I think it should work if you assume you have a maximal list of non-trivial idempotents as long as it is non-empty
It can probably be refined into a necessary condition, too. When I read "they should generate the ring," I assume that's in the context of "generate it as a $X-$module," where $X$ is some ring such that $R$ is expressible as an $X-$module. Perhaps some reasonable restriction on $X$ would make it necessary
@TedShifrin did someone ring?
@Thorgott then what did you mean?
anyways, I looked at one solution and they have also done it for some basis that works.
@XanderHenderson Should the US map be put on a Mobius strip to denote non-orientability?
17:33
Either the definition of orientation preserving in the book is wrong
or the solution is wrong.
@robjohn NOT WITH MY TAX DOLLARS!!!!!11!!!!!!!!!!!11!!111!!!!
I believe the former
@robjohn on a Mobius strip and then inside Klein bottle.
@Rithaniel Grr.... $X$-module. The hyphen is a hyphen, not a subtraction nor a negative sign. $X$-module, not $X-$module. X(
TYPSETTING CARRIES SEMANTICS! X(
$-$-$-$-$-$
I asked many people and all of them do it with some basis.
not for all bases.
17:36
@Koro I got one of those from a friend a few years ago. I have trouble filling it up.
suggesting that the book's definition is wrong.
@Koro And the plural of "basis" is "bases". Why is everyone so terrible today?!
:'(
@XanderHenderson and I'm terribler!
$X\sim$module or $X$~module? (X-$module$)
@XanderHenderson I'm badder.
17:37
I'm worsest
@Koro I meant what I said. If you fix the orientation on one space, then there is one (and only one) orientation on the other space s.t. the isomorphism is orientation-preserving.
what do you mean by orientation preserving? What is your definition?
I ask because it seems different than mine.
Suppose that $f: S\to \tilde S$ is a smooth map, where $S, \tilde S$ are oriented $n$- surfaces in $\mathbb R^{n+1}$ with smooth unit normals $N_1$ and $N_2$. Suppose that $Df_p$ is non singular for every $p\in S$.
The derivative $f$ is said to be an orientation preserving map if for all $p \in S$ and for all positively oriented bases vectors $v_1,...,v_n$ of the tangent space $S_p$ (i.e., with the property that $\det\begin{pmatrix}v_1\\ v_2\\ \vdots\\ v_n\\ N_1(p)\end{pmatrix}>0$), we have $\det\begin{pmatrix}Df_p(v_1)\\ Df_p(v_2)\\ \vdots\\ Df(v_n)\\ N_2(f(p))\end{pmatrix}>0$.
I use this definition.
Here is what AI had to say about it. It doesn't seem correct.
@Thorgott when you say the isomorphism is orientation-preserving, you mean $Df_p$ is an isomorphism that preserves orientations.
But that's a problem as per my definition because then one also has to consider $N_2(Df_p (u))$ at some u
17:56
@Koro Asking AI about math is like rolling a dice
@Koro if $V,W$ are oriented vector spaces, an isomorphism $f\colon V\rightarrow W$ is orientation-preserving if it takes a (equivalently, any) positively oriented basis of $V$ to a positively oriented basis of $W$
@Jakobian what to do when there's no one to answer!!
you have to understand orientations of vector spaces before talking about orientations of manifolds
@Thorgott OK. You see I didn't know this definition before.
Won't it be something like, an orientation on a manifold is an orientation on all of its tangent spaces (+ compatible)?
18:00
I suppose f in your message should be defined as orient. p iff determinant(f)>0.
And then orientation preserving map will be something that preserves orientation on tangent spaces ?
determinant does not make sense without choosing bases
but you said oriented so...
if you choose positively oriented basis for $V$ and $W$, $f$ will be orientation-preserving if and only if the determinant of its matrix representation in that basis is positive
V,W are oriented so we can take 'ordered' basis.
18:01
@Thorgott I thought determinant was invariant of change of basis?
with positive determinant.
@Jakobian yes
@Jakobian yes, but we're looking at two different vector spaces
the determinant is only intrinsic for automorphisms $V\rightarrow V$
oh, so they have to be the same
@Thorgott yes, I meant that.
and then you want to take the same basis on domain and codomain
and the resulting matrix has determinant invariant under change of basis
18:02
yeah that makes sense
@Koro ok, that's fair then. I'm just being precise because "the determinant" is not well-defined in this context
now the point is: suppose v_1, v_2,...,v_n is an ordered basis of V. hmm, how do you say it's positively oriented?
what is positively oriented here?
For R^3 one can say e_1,e_2,e_3 is positively oriented because determinant (e_1, e_2, e_3)=1>0
but what can we say in general vector space?
I said "oriented vector space"
that means a vector space together with a chosen orientation
what is orientation in case of vector space?
Say, on the space of 2 by 3 real matrices.
an equivalence class of bases, where two bases are equivalent if their change of basis matrix has positive determinant
so there's exactly two equivalence classes
the members of the chosen equivalence class are called positively oriented bases
the members of the other equivalence classes are the negatively oriented basis
18:08
@Thorgott ah, I see so that's the definition.
yes, you just define "orientation" to mean precisely what it has to mean so that "orientation-preserving" means "positive determinant" (in the sense discussed earlier)
I see, I understand. Thanks for clarifying it up.
yeah, sorry for not explaining this first
@Thorgott ok, understood.
I hope you can see now how the unit normal field on a surface induces an orientation on every of its tangent spaces
18:15
You see, I know this as a definition: basis vectors v_1,...,v_n in S_p are said to be positively oriented if det(v_1,...,v_n, N(p))>0.
S_p is n dimension tangent space at p.
N is unit smooth normal field.
@Thorgott I'm starting to understand it now. But I want to know what your definition of orientation preserving map is.
I have stated mine above.
And yours' still seems to me a different one.
ok, so now we have establish that an oriented surface has a natural orientation on each of its tangent spaces
so we call a diffeomorphism orientation-preserving if its differential at every tangent space is orientation-preserving in the previous sense
yeah
@Thorgott so just to clarify: positively oriented basis vectors in V and +ly oriented basis vectors in W. f was a linear map so its determinant w.r.t. to these bases is positive.
and you are are defining orientation preserving for a diffeomorphism only.
in my case it is for smooth maps between n-surfaces which by inverse function theorem are also local diffeomorphisms so ok.
hmm, so suppose that $v_1,v_2,...,v_n\in S_p$ are positively oriented in the determinant sense that I mentioned. Suppose that $w_1,..., w_n$ are also positively oriented in the same sense. I want to show that the change of basis matrix has positive determinant.
I think I understand it now. Let A be a matrix that does that, i.e., $w_i= Av_i$ for all i and also $N(p)= AN(p)$. So $\det(w_1,..., w_n, N(p))=\det (Av_1,..., Av_n, AN(p))=\det(A)\det(v_1,...,v_n, N(p))>0$
so $\det(A)>0$.
so my definition is consistent with your definition.
18:37
@Koro yeah, local diffeo is fine too
but if it were not an isomorphism on the tangent spaces, it would not make sense to ask whether it preserves or reverses orientation cause it doesn't map bases to bases
@Koro what kind of matrix is $A$ supposed to be? this does not quite make sense as written, I think
So $S_p\subset R^{n+1}$.
A is an (n+1) by (n+1) matrix.
A is like change of basis matrix.
ah ok, you should probably add indices to the normal fields
but that my definition is consistent with yours does not require an argument. it is tautology
ohh
it's tautology but so is 'differentiability implies continuity'.
🤔
@Thorgott equivalently any? f takes a positively oriented basis v_1,...,v_n to say w_1,...,w_n respectively. Now, let $u_1,...,u_n$ be positively o.b.. Let $P:V\to V$ be the linear map $P(v_i)=u_i$ for all i. I want to show that $f(u_i)$'s are positively ob.
18:54
No, differentiability implies continuity is not tautology. Just ask Jakobian with the stuff he's reading in Banach spaces.
"tautology" in the sense that it is literally the same thing, just some words are substituted with synonymous words
@Koro here, you are just saying a positively oriented basis is taking to a positively oriented basis, which is the same as my definition of orientation-preserving
@Thorgott yes, I realised that.
Now, I'm trying to understand how to go to 'for all positively ob' from 'a positively ob'.
$f(u_i)= f\circ P(v_i)$ should be positively ob.
These are basis vectors, yes.
To show these to be positive oriented, I should show that there exists a linear map T:$W\to W$ such that $T(f(v_i))= f(u_i)$ with det(T)>0.
in the basis v_1,...,v_n of V, the u_1,...,u_n are represented by a matrix A with positive determinant (this is the definition of both bases defining the same orientation). now fix a positively oriented basis w_1,...,w_n of W. with respect to the bases v_1,...,v_n and w_1,...,w_n, f is represented by a matrix T.
the images f(u_1),...,f(u_n) are represented in the basis w_1,...,w_n of W by the matrix TA. now, det(TA)=det(T)det(A) is positive iff det(T) is positive as we already know det(A) is positive.
I'm so glad Thor is here to take care of the differential topology basics, so I don't have to :D
I feel like I jumped straight into sea without learning swimming.
19:02
By the way, @Thor, I meant to ask. Have you proceeded into the Ph.D. program by now? When we first met you, I was under the impression you were not yet a graduate student.
@Koro I think you always over-panic.
yeah, I should fix this.
But determinant of T is 1
@Koro det T=1 because matrix of T w.r.t. the bases {f(v_i)} and {f(u_i)} is the identity matrix.
this looks wrong. This will imply every change of bases transformation is of + determinant to some extent.
@TedShifrin I'll start working on a Master's thesis soon. The plan is to start a PhD next fall. My advisor is in the process talking to some of his colleagues.
So you're staying at the same uni?
no, I'll be moving
Ah. Are you already accepted?
19:13
Nope, I've not yet applied anywhere. The current stage is figuring out where to go.
Thor, open your own uni.
:)
Wow. In our world, applications should already be submitted.
Maybe by next fall you meant fall, 2025.
@Koro is something wrong with this?
applications are around march/april, I think
it looks wrong to me because I didn't use the fact v_i's are positively oriented.
19:19
For fall, 2024, Thor? Crazy.
@TedShifrin that is my understanding, yes
@robjohn Banned!
I remember that November was when I needed to have applications (undergraduate) for the next fall.
@TedShifrin I've heard that other countries have later and/or "rolling" application deadlines.
Because, like, they treat a phd program like a job, rather than training.
@Koro this is what I warned you about earlier. you have to be careful about which bases you choose. any linear isomorphism is represented by the identity matrix in a silly choice of basis.
19:24
Well, @robjohn, but applications to Ph.D. are typically due December or January, at the latest. We have a national mandated deadline of April 15 for all decisions to be submitted.
Ah, I don’t remember when my graduate applications were due.
Having spent 35 years writing recommendations, I'll tell you they were all due in December and early January.
For undergraduate, there's now all this early action/early decision stuff. Those admissions are made December 15.
I believe you. Just no personal recollection.
Yeah, for you and me (particularly) it was a long time ago. And, of course, in those days, places like Princeton wouldn't decide until NSF decisions had been made (also early in January, I think).
Ted is it hard to get into Princeton to do a PhD?
19:30
Very.
Things may have changed, but it's a small department, small graduate classes, and in my day they didn't even teach first-year graduate courses. They assumed that students had learned it all already.
Yeah, there were no first year courses in 1981
I've read that you must have no less that 3 recomendation letters
@SineoftheTime That is pretty typical, yes.
Yes, minimum 3, some places 4.
19:34
from an economical point of view, can you live only by the "salary" that they give you? I don't know how much costs the life in the US
@Thorgott how did you get the last line? Why by the matrix TA?
@SineoftheTime It depends, but usually, no.
@Thorgott yes, noted.
It's not easy. When I went to Berkeley, apartment rents (even sharing) used up more than half my money each month. I imagine it's worse now.
what's the average price for a rent?
19:35
@SineoftheTime Graduate student stipends in the US tend to be around $30k per year.
In my homecountry, around 1200€ per month
I don't even know what rents are now, other than the obscene amount I'm paying in San Diego.
@SineoftheTime That varies a lot by state (and locale).
@XanderHenderson I guess so
Places like UGA aren't quite as bad, but even there rents are not as cheap as they should be because there are so many students (undergraduate and graduate) ...
19:37
Places with big universities tend to be more expensive, but not universally so. California and New York are obscene.
@XanderHenderson do you have an idea in Princeton?
Expensive. It is practically New York.
Google can get you better stats.
You can find out by googling, @Sine. That will be more informative than asking us.
A quick question: Given a graded algebra $R$ with a graded derivation $d \colon R \rightarrow R$ and a graded $R$-module $M$, is there a standard name for maps $\mu \colon M \rightarrow M$ which satisfy a Leibniz rule with respect to $d$ (i.e, $\mu( r \cdot m) = dr \cdot m \pm r \cdot \mu(m)$)?
When $d^2 = 0$ and $\mu^2 = 0$ then this compatibility is what needed to turn $\left( M, \mu \right)$ into a DG-module but I'm interested in the more general case. It seems tempting to call $\mu$ a "module derivation" but googling it gives mostly derivations of the form $R \rightarrow M$ when $M$ is a bimodule and not of the form $M \rightarrow M$.
19:43
@Koro cause the composition of linear maps corresponds to the multiplication of representing matrices (if you make the effort to choose the bases consistently)
the matrix $A$ represents the isomorphism $V\rightarrow V$ sending $v_i\mapsto u_i$ in the basis $v_i$ on both domain and codomain
user587860
If we have a group action of a group G on a vector space V, does this extend to a group action of G/N on V? Where N is a normal subgroup of G.
@dejavu This is too technical for us here, I think. You should probably post that on the main site.
@Thorgott I know that. I mean if $f(u_1)= c_1 w_1+...+c_n w_n$, then why is $(c_1, c_2,...,c_n)^t$ the first column of TA?
@Supersymmetry That is not extending. That is inducing or reducing to. $N$ has to act trivially for this to make sense.
@Koro Go back to beginning linear algebra. How do you write the matrix of a linear transformation, given bases?
@TedShifrin Okay, thanks! Since this is a terminology question, I thought I might get a quick answer here instead of littering the main site but I'll try.
user587860
19:47
@TedShifrin Thank you. By "N has to act trivially", do you mean that the action of N on X look like nx = x for n\in N and x\in X?
@dejavu The main site is littered with "do my homework" questions with zero effort.
This is not so bad.
@Supersymmetry Yes. Think about what an action of $G/N$ would entail.
user587860
Thanks.
@Thorgott crisp!! thanks a lot.
I still have one confusion: why is det T>0?
I think that det T=1
$f: V\to W$ and in your notations: matrix of f=T with respect to bases {v_i} of V and {w_i} of W.
fv_i= w_i so matrix of f is identity.
@dejavu I would probably still just call it a derivation (and explain what I mean)
@Thorgott is this correct?
19:59
I guess the real question is what to call the pair $(R,d)$, cause then $(M,\mu)$ is clearly the right notion of what a module over $(R,d)$ should be
@Koro no?
at no point did we assume that f maps v_i to w_i
@Thorgott I used this.
So $f(v_i)=w_i$, no?
@Thorgott Yeah, that's what I did for now but I find it hard to believe that nobody talked about such objects before and invented some more or less accepted terminology
no? the v's and w's were arbitrary positively oriented bases of V and W respectively
yeah, and I assumed that $f$ maps v's to w's.
@dejavu yeah, I've had similar issues before. I would encourage you to post a question
20:05
using the linked definition
@Koro then $f$ would be orientation-preserving to begin with
you're doing a circular reasoning
@Thorgott no, I'm trying to prove 'equivalently, any' part in your message.
So I assume that f is orientation pres. for positively oriented bases v_i's in V and w_i's in W.
then I'm trying to show that: for positively oriented bases u_i's in V and $f(u_i)$'s in W, f is positively oriented.
@Thorgott why not? this is the definition?
is there any book where it is given?
ah, now this makes sense
Surely, Thorpe's differential geometry book has none of it
yeah, you can assume $T$ is the identity, that's fair
20:11
$\ddot\smile$
thanks a lot, I get it now.
my explanation was suboptimal in that regard, sorry
nvm thanks, my 3 months old confusion is clear now because of you.
Thorpe's book is not my favorite at all, although I never tried teaching out of it. For standard texts, look at Boothby, volume 1 of Spivak, among others.
this should be discussed in every book
Tu certainly has it in great detail, Lee has it without of a doubt as well
20:28
I don't know their books, although I know the authors. Lee took a graduate course in complex geometry from me, but turned out to be far more prolific as a math author than I ever did. :)
If $f:A\subseteq E_1\times E_2\to F$ is differentiable at $x_0$, then $D_1f(x_0)$ and $D_2f(x_0)$ exist and $Df(x_0) = D_1f(x_0)\circ i_1 + D_2f(x_0)\circ i_2$ where $i_k:E_k\to E_1\times E_2$ are canonical injections. If $Df$ exists and is continuous at $x_0$, then $D_1f, D_2f$ are continuous at $x_0$. If $D_1f, D_2f$ exist and are continuous at $x_0$, then $Df(x_0)$ exists.
That doesn't sound very interesting.
I just don't like the assumptions of continuity on the whole domain
Still doesn't sound very interesting.
Yet?
Are there applications of the pseudo-derivative $PDf(x_0) =\sum_{k=1}^n D_kf(x)\circ i_k$ assuming that the partial derivatives exist?
say, for sufficently nice function $f$, but not nice enough for this to coincide with the derivative
20:46
Not that I am aware of. I also do not know examples of functions that have partial derivatives on an open set that are nowhere differentiable on that open set.
I suspect there must be a Baire category type thing that it must be differentiable most places. But there's a good question for you to wrestle with.
If the function is continuous and all partial derivatives exists, then their points of continuity are co-meager sets. The intersection of all of those sets is non-empty
So by theorem I just mentioned, since partial derivatives are continuous at any point of that set, the derivative must exist somewhere
well, that doesn't say anything about the ones that can be discontinuous
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