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00:00
There doesn’t seem to be a specific text for the class. Topics are: Basic logic: implications, proofs (direct, indirect, induction, contradiction, contraposition), defining sets: reals, integers, etc.
Convergence of sequences, series
Continuity of functions
Differential calculus: Define, compute derivatives, Taylor's theorem
Integral calculus: Define general Riemann integral, compute special integrals (including improper integrals)
Uniform convergence, continuity: Interchanging limits, sums, integrals
Yeah, this is all single-variable “baby” analysis.
The 2nd semester of the class is: Topology of n-dimensional Euclidean space. Rigorous treatment of multivariable differentiation and integration, including chain rule, Taylor's Theorem, implicit function theorem, Fubini's Theorem, change of variables, Stokes' Theorem.
That part is more rigorous multivariable. This sounds like the old Buck Adv Calculus book.
He cites several books, not any in particular. A couple are Elias Zakon - Mathematical Analysis I, and Terence Tao - Analysis I
@robjohn Don’t worry I found it. Here:
00:11
@leslietownes that's where i first encountered rate my professors stockholm syndrome. Makes one shudder to think whether the same students might be experiencing stockholm syndrome toward their dad/mom, their church, or (horror of horror) their future spouse !
What is Stockholm syndrome?
I also don’t think it’s hard for people to make multiple Rate My Professor accounts to write multiple reviews for the same professor
The lowest RMP I’ve seen is a 2/5 which one of my physics professors had
@CottonHeadedNinnymuggins It's a psychological coping mechanism in a power imbalance situation where one is trapped, so instead of seeing clearly how one is abused, to preserve one's sanity one develops reasons to praise the "captor". Named after a real hostage situation here. So the victim would rationalize that they benefit although in reality they do not. They can go as far as defending and protecting those who abused them, which makes it tragic.
@GratefulDisciple [footnote] No mainstream psychological or medical organization recognizes it as a diagnosable condition.
I'm just here to tell everyone to have a good night! <3
@GratefulDisciple interesting. I’ll have a psychology course this fall for the first time.
@AbdoIsmail you too
00:20
@CottonHeadedNinnymuggins Great. Ask your professor, he/she should know.
I think the teacher/student relationship Is truly not an abusive one except in very rare occasions. Being intellectually demanding is not abuse.
Night, Abdo.
@XanderHenderson Is that so. That's interesting. I guess only a psychoanalyst in a one-to-one therapy sessions might help one able to see it. What I have seen in others is those who defend their "church" leaders who I would categorize as cult leaders.
@TedShifrin Completely agree. It's really how they relate to their students human-to-human.
On the church I totally agree. Same with MAGA, clearly.
@GratefulDisciple I feel like I've lost something in your train of thought. All I said was that no medical institution recognizes it as a diagnosable condition.
00:25
@TedShifrin Yes, which worries me very much !
The wikipedia article you linked seems to make that point at least three times in the opening spiel.
I guess some profs do have almost a cultish following. I wonder if some perceived me that way .
And that the FBI only observes about 8% of hostages showing signs of the “syndrome”
Wonder if Koro watched Gear 5
@XanderHenderson I can agree about its not being objective enough to deserve a DSM entry. But I think even though its vague, it can be useful as a name / label when helping a possible victim. One famous (fiction) case is 007 movie The World Is Not Enough.
00:33
I don’t feel like going to college today
@CottonHeadedNinnymuggins Which seems to be common sense. Only egregious and long-term hostages would show the sign.
@GratefulDisciple (1) I'm not sure that I can agree. The goal of labeling something is to use that label to offer potential treatments and prognoses. If the label doesn't offer any help with treatment, or any idea of what to expect, then it doesn't seem like a very useful label. Which is slightly tangential---I don't know enough to be able to say whether or not "Stokholm syndrome" is a useful label. The medical community, however, seems to believe that, for the moment, it is not.
(2) When your "famous example" is a fictional character, it doesn't really help your case. There are a lot of fictional ailments which don't map to anything in reality. "Zombie-ism", for example.
@XanderHenderson Yes, I also don't know enough. I'm just using it as a layman, which professionals may get annoyed by me :-) . Maybe like how some users automatically say "it's a bug" when reporting a problem.
Some real life diseases/conditions are even weirder than fictional ones. I only recently learned that Treeman syndrome is a real thing
@冥王Hades Wow, you're right. Just saw some pictures. Terrifying.
00:39
There’s a reason why I didn’t link it
@XanderHenderson OK. Guilty as charged. Anyway, I need a label when I see someone got hooked by a cult Christian teaching that no matter how I reason with him/her, still cannot recognize how that teaching is out of the mainstream.
@GratefulDisciple I mean, one does not need to be mentally ill in order to be taken in by a cult.
@XanderHenderson Yes, and I wouldn't category someone with a "Stockholm syndrome" mentally ill either, more like having a distorted reality.
Cults tend to be much more about the charm, charisma, and control of the leader (and the structures of power they build around themselves) than the susceptibility or mental health of the followers.
00:46
@XanderHenderson What label would you use for the true-believers followers of the cult leader?
@GratefulDisciple Do they require a label?
Are all followers suffering from an ailment which can be treated following some standardizable protocol?
@XanderHenderson Not for name-calling them, but to have a handle on their "condition". And also not to claim we have a specific treatment for them. More like labelling an emotion, I guess, like said, broken-hearted, etc.
Also, what's wrong with "true-believers" as a label?
I mean, I call them Maggots. Does that help?
@冥王Hades No.
00:51
@XanderHenderson Well.... I recognize that in popular parlance "true believer" is quite established. Even my dad used it before I understand what it means. But among academic theologians, we don't like that because we would like to use it positively in the sense of "genuine believer" instead of "cultural Christian" for example.
I refuse to call them “true-believers”
Another reason: it devalues the word "truth". I would rather use the label: "die hard gullible follower", implying someone who cannot think for themselves.
@GratefulDisciple I mean, you're the one who used the term "true believer".
@XanderHenderson Again, guilty as charged :-). Maybe subconsciously I have resigned to the popularity of the term in the negative sense.
@GratefulDisciple Don't you think that this rather dehumanizes the cult followers? You seem to want to completely take away their agency. This is what the cult leader does to control them, no?
Again, I would suggest that cults are much more about the leader than the followers.
00:55
@XanderHenderson The real examples I'm thinking about, and the sad thing about it, is that the leader does NOT take away their agency. We're not talking about Waco style cult here.
And just imagine trying to deprogram someone if you are starting from "Well, you are a gullible idiot who can't think for themselves. No wonder you got cultified." Always good to blame the victims...
@XanderHenderson You just called me out without knowing it…
@XanderHenderson OK, I see now. Yes, cult IS about the leaders. And yes, "gullible" probably wouldn't be the right term to use. But internally, I don't see them as idiot, but as victim that does not WANT to think for themselves, because they have trusted the leader too much to even CONSIDER that the leader might be wrong.
So I want to help the victims, but I find many of them don't want to be "helped". They rather want to recruit me instead !
There is a very notable and specific community I have in mind that follows that example perfectly.
What I see is cult leader operates on the followers' desire, which motivate them to do certain things, including donating money, energy, buy their books, and spread the teaching to others. One is trapped in the "movement" it's hard to get them out. When one criticizes the leader, they automatically defend the leader. I would categorize them as savvy marketer: they make the followers feel good about themselves, give them meanings, etc.
@冥王Hades I can probably guess what you have in mind.
01:20
how on earth do you notate "counting the number of curves of the family $a_t(x)$ which are greater than the number of curves of the family $b_t(x)$ up to a given magnitude?"
where $t$ indexes the set of functions.
You have to specify a path along which you count it seems. So the best I can come up with is this:

Consider a function: $f: \Bbb N \to \Bbb N$ defined as follows:

$$f(n)=\bigg\lbrace\#\lbrace a_t(x) \rbrace >\#\lbrace b_t(x) \rbrace: \# \pitchfork \mathrm{id}\bigg \rbrace.$$
where $ \# \pitchfork \mathrm{id}$ means the counting is done along the identity path
BlR
BlR
Question about eigenvectors: if I have two matrices of similarities (following 3000 objects) and I want to identify which eigenvector of matrix 1 corresponds to which in matrix 2. How do I go about it? (assuming have a spectral decomposition of 400 vectors for each matrix)
I thought of matching the vectors based on their quantiles but at that scale (3000 objects, 400 dimensions) that takes way too long.
What other more direct approach can I use?
@XanderHenderson Reading the criticism section of the Wikipedia article, yes, I think I'm rather careless in using "Stockholm Syndrome". And yes, it's about the leaders, as theology professor Roger Olson identifies 4 cultic features in his new book announced here. Thanks for your feedback.
01:59
0
Q: Problem in understanding the reason behind the continuity of the irrational points in Thomae's Function

Thomas FinleyWe consider $h:A\to\Bbb R$ where $A=(0,\infty).$ In Thomae's Function we consider: $$ \begin{align} h(x) = \begin{cases} 0 & \text{if $x$ is irrational}\\ \frac{1}{n} & \text{if $x = \frac{m}{n}$ where $\gcd(m,n) = 1$} \end{cases} \end{align} $$ It is also to be noted that $x\in A.$ I was studyi...

I need some help with this...
@leslietownes Can you please take a look at this? :?)
if you post a question, why don't you wait a while to get an answer instead of immediately posting same here?
@copper.hat The problem's that in here, I have friends like you all!
02:13
I think in my post, the proof is not saying that there exists at least one rational number in canonical form whose denominator is less than $n_0,$ but they are saying instead, that even if there is some rationals whose denominator is less than $n_0$ in canonical form, then the number of such rationals are finite. But I don't know whether this is the thing intended ?
But I am having a strong feeling that this is the case, precisely
02:30
once again i am a bit lost. in any bounded interval there are a finite number of values of the form ${p \over q}$ for a fixed $q$.
@copper.hat Check my edited post, when you have time. I have edited it, adding more and more clarity in my words, in my thoughts, in my presentation to the best of ny ability! ;)
I just made the thing more rigorously clear...
(Hopefully)
any two rationals with denominator $n_0$ are separated by at least ${1 \over n_0}$, so any interval of length $2$ can have at most $2 n_0+1$ rationals with denominator $n_0$.
@copper.hat yes, but I said the same thing using a different argument in OP under the section of My thoughts under the paragraph "Doubt 1" . Isn't that a valid reasoning?
Though I think, your explanation is much more direct
i don't know. i'm not sure what is bothering you. If you fix $n_0$ then there is an interval around the irrational $b$ that contains no ${p \over q}$ where $|q| \le n_0$.
if every interval around $b$ had an element of the form ${p \over q}$ (and $|q| \le n_0$) then $b$ would have to be rational.
02:51
@copper.hat Nope, now nothing's bothering me, whatsoever.
But, my point is, that the reason for claiming that $(b-1,b+1)$ has a finite number of the mentioned rationals is because, a rational number is of the form $p/q$ where, $p,q\in\Bbb N$ with $(p,q)=1$ and, $q$ can take any values from $1,2,...,n_0-1$ and $p$ can be any natural number in $(b-1,b+1)$ (, if at all any natural is there in $(b-1,b+1)$). If there are $z$ natural nos. in the interval, $(b-1,b+1)$ then, the total number of the mentioned rational numbers is at most $z(n_0-1).$
I just need a confirmation, where these lines of reasoning is correct or not, @copper.hat ?
And this whole thing, comes under the umbrella of "Doubt 1" of mine
why do you care about computing a specific number of points? it has nothing to do with the proof?
@copper.hat To rigorously assert that the no. of the rationals whose denominator is less than $n_0$ in the interval, $(b-1,b+1)$ in canonical representation is finite
all that matters is that the number of points of the form ${ p \over q}$ with blah blah blah in the interval $b \pm 1 $ is finite. Since $b$ is not equal to any of these points there is an interval around $b$ that does not intersect with any of the aforementioned points.
that is all that is needed for the proof.
@copper.hat proof of "the no. of the rationals whose denominator is less than $n_0$ in the interval, $(b-1,b+1)$ in canonical representation is finite" ?
If so, then I just chose this line of reasoning:
4 mins ago, by Thomas Finley
But, my point is, that the reason for claiming that $(b-1,b+1)$ has a finite number of the mentioned rationals is because, a rational number is of the form $p/q$ where, $p,q\in\Bbb N$ with $(p,q)=1$ and, $q$ can take any values from $1,2,...,n_0-1$ and $p$ can be any natural number in $(b-1,b+1)$ (, if at all any natural is there in $(b-1,b+1)$). If there are $z$ natural nos. in the interval, $(b-1,b+1)$ then, the total number of the mentioned rational numbers is at most $z(n_0-1).$
@ThomasFinley I can't believe that this hasn't been asked and answered many times already in the site. Have you searched for other answers?
02:56
i would consider that obvious, just as the number of integers in any bounded interval is finite
you are making things more complicated than they need to be and i do not want to chase you down that rabbit hole
@copper.hat You know my feelings on "obvious".
obviously
And yet, I agree.
i guess if i am calling something obvious then it must be
@XanderHenderson Ha ha, yeah, I searched and I found some answers. They were focussed on Doubt 2. But I have 3 specific doubts. Out of them,Doubt 1,2 are cleared. But Doubt 3 is what remains.
02:59
i gave a formula for the max number of rationals with denominator $n_0$ in any interval of length a short while ago
I mean, if YOU can see it, it MUST be obvious.
we agree there
@copper.hat I'm lazy. "By the Archimedean property ..."
@ThomasFinley do we agree that the union of a finite number of finite sets is again finite?
@copper.hat yes, sure!
03:01
@ThomasFinley be very concrete: how many fractions are there with denominator 2 in [0,1]?
so, for each natural $q \le n_0$ the collection $\{ { k \over q} | {k \over q} \in [b-1,b+1] \}$ is finite.
Denominator 3? 4? 5? ... n?
That's actually seems to be a verbatim of a special case of the statement: "Countable union of Countable sets is Countable "
@ThomasFinley no.
Nonono.
@XanderHenderson Hehe, no I intended that for copper
03:03
finiteness is important here
@ThomasFinley I know.
@XanderHenderson 3 ?
But a finite union of finite sets being finite is NOT a special care of the result regarding countable sets.
0,1/2 and 1
@XanderHenderson but finite sets are countable?
sweet jesus
2
03:04
@ThomasFinley the question was rhetorical.
@ThomasFinley Maybe. But not all countable sets are finite.
@XanderHenderson Yes, that's why I asserted that it was a special case. But I agree with you for sure!
@XanderHenderson The answer is 1, if you are asking for rationals in Canonical representation
@ThomasFinley Do you agree that for any $n_0$ there is an interval about $b$ that contains no element of the form ${p \over q}$ with $q \le n_0$ and $q$ natural?
@ThomasFinley I don't know what you mean by canonical representation, and I said nothing about canonical representations.
I don't care if we over count, either.
Finite is finite.
@XanderHenderson Oh, sorry Sir. I got you wrong then .
@XanderHenderson yes
@copper.hat yes
so then Doubt 3 goes away, right?
03:12
@copper.hat obviously. :P
:-)
i have a proof of the twin primes conjecture but it won't fit in the chat box.
@copper.hat Sorry, but how? Forgive me, if I sound stupid, but I don't seem to have an option.
@copper.hat You and Fermat, brother.
one more time. in the interval $[b-1,b+1]$ there are a finite number of rationals with denominator $0 < q \le n_0$.
@copper.hat yes, and?
03:19
and none of them equal $b$. are we on board so far?
Ugh ... I'm full of fish, and chips, and wine, and allergy meds, and snot. I'm going to bed.
ohh, fish & chips...
sorry to hear about the snot
@copper.hat dad's whub Ah maybe for dinner.
@ThomasFinley are do you agree with my last two assertions?
Bed. Go away now.
03:21
@copper.hat $b\in [b-1,b+1]$ and $b=b/1$ and since, $1\leq n_0$ so, one of them seems to be equal to $b$
good night @XanderHenderson
@XanderHenderson Bye, take care!
@ThomasFinley $b$ is irrational, that is all you need to know, i do not know what the $b=b/1$ is about.
@copper.hat oh yes, sorry, I agree now
I agree with ur 2 assertions hereby
03:23
so there must be a small interval around $b$ that does not intersect with the rationals of teh form p/q and $0<q \le n_0$. right?
@copper.hat yes agreed
So, in this interval, there are only rationals of the form p/q with $q > n_0$ or irrationals, right?
@copper.hat yeah
then $|h(x)| \le {1 \over n_0+1}$ for $x$ in this interval.
if $x$ is irrational it is $0$, so obvious there, and otherwise the denominator must be $> n_0$.
@copper.hat Can't we say, $|h(x)|\leq \frac{1}{n_0}$ instead of that ?
@copper.hat yes
So, $|h(x)| \le {\frac{1}{n_0}}$
Thanks a ton,@copper.hat !
I got it!
Let me write an answer to my own question, and after that I'll share it with u loud and clear ha ha!
03:30
@ThomasFinley great!
03:46
0
A: Problem in understanding the reason behind the continuity of the irrational points in Thomae's Function

Thomas FinleyThe proof given was : If $b$ is an irrational number and $\epsilon > 0,$ then (by the Archimedean Property) there is a natural number $n_0$ such that $1/n_0 < \epsilon.$ There are only a finite number of rationals with denominator less than $n_0$ in the interval $(b-1,b+1).$ (Why?) Hence $\delta >...

@copper.hat I have already written this answer. Without you, I couldn't have written it this explicitly. Thanks again! You may check it out and suggest some improvements if needed.
Any suggestions for improving this answer by the community folks are welcome
Also, @copper.hat Is my answer correct? I tried my best tho :D
04:42
Hello there! I need just a little confirmation 'gain. The point is:
I wanna prove this "There are only a finite number of rationals with denominator less than $n_0$ in the interval $(b-1,b+1).$"


it is asserted that, that if such rational numbers exist they must be finite.

Proof : We know that there are, finite number of natural numbers less than $n_0$ i.e $n_0-1$ natural numbers are there. Similarly, there exist a finite number of natural numbers in the interval $(b-1,b+1)$ say, $z$. Thus, the total number of rationals with dwnominator less than $n_0$ in the interval $(b-1,b+1)$ is **at most** $z(n_0-1),$ which is finite. Hence, they made such a statement.
Welcome back @amWhy :)
Is my proof, valid?
@robjohn and @leslietownes Can you guys check my proof , please ? :?)
 
1 hour later…
06:04
A user said, the proof above is incorrect.
But I don't know why he said that.
He asked me to consider the interval (1,3) and said, if $n_0=5$ then my approximation given the result $4$.
But I replied by saying, that we must inclide the endpoints as the endpoints are natural numbers due to which the approximation gives exactly 12.
Was I wrong?
06:41
FLP is a good book, although it's not very kind. It contains many important and useful concepts and statements.
reading FLP is like looking at a work of art. I need to look long (or very long?) enough to see what they're saying.
07:27
what is the meaning of image of $\pi_2(X)$ in $\pi_2(X,A), A\subset X$?
I mean image under what map?
pi_2 is 2nd homotopy group.
I think we can regard pi_2 X as subset of the other.
an element [g] of $\pi_2(X,A)$ is represented by: $g:(I^2, I\times 0, J)\to (X,A, a_0)$, where $J= \{0,1\}\times I\cup I\times 1$. And that [f] in $pi_2(X)$ is represented by $f:(I^2, \partial I^2)\to (X,a_0)$.
 
2 hours later…
09:10
@Koro not the other way around?
$\pi_2(X, A)$ is constructed as equivalence on maps $D^2\to X$ which map $S^1$ to $A$. Any map $S^2\to X$ can be treated as a map $D^2\to X$ which maps $S^1$ to the base point of $X$
ah okay I see
we need the basepoint in $A$ but as long as that happens there is a canonical map, which should induce a map between equivalence classes
well, that probably depends a little on how you define those, using spheres or otherwise
not a big difference
 
2 hours later…
11:00
Questions asked by a "Cambridge PhD drop-out."
🤯
11:14
@robjohn my doubt is still how we go from $\sin(1/2)\le\limsup\limits_{n\to\infty}|a_n|\le1$ to $\limsup\limits_{n\to\infty}|a_n|^{1/n}=1$. You and Jakobian mentioned the inequality $\sin(1/2)\leq \sup_{k\geq n} |a_k|$, but I do not see how this inequality is derived. Moreover, if this inequality does hold, how do we get that $n$th root in there so we can take the limit as $n\to\infty$.
Anyway, I have this approach, but it'd be awesome to understand yours as well.
11:28
is there an inequality for $(x+y)^{1/2}$ similar to $(x+y)^2 \geq x^2+y^2$ where $x,y\geq 0$
@sunny you see how $\sup_{k\geq n} |a_k|$ is a decreasing sequence?
yes
And it converges to $\limsup_{n\to\infty} |a_n|$
indeed
and we know this is greater than $\sin(1/2)$
11:34
the limit of $b_n=\sup_{k\geq n} |a_k|$ is greater than $\sin(1/2)$, yes
about the $n$th root, anyway
The function $x\mapsto x^{1/n}$ is increasing, from $[0, \infty)$ onto $[0, \infty)$
If $A\subseteq [0, \infty)$, can you see how this implies $A^{1/n} = \{x^{1/n} : x \in A\}$ is such that $\sup A^{1/n} = (\sup A)^{1/n}$
you can switch between the $n$th root and the suprema
I will try to look at this again thoroughly, indeed, this was my doubt: $\sup A^{1/n} = (\sup A)^{1/n}$.
$(\sup A)^{1/n}$ is definitely an upper bound for $A^{1/n}$
is it the least upper bound?
If $x^{1/n}\leq y$ for all $x\in A$, then definitely $x\leq y^n$ for all $x\in A$. So $\sup A\leq y^n$, that is $(\sup A)^{1/n}\leq y$
so indeed, the two numbers (possibly infinite) are equal
@sunny what did I use in above argument
the monotonicity of $x^n$?
we used that $x\mapsto x^{1/n}$ is a monotone bijection
so this will hold in a more general setting
11:47
@Jakobian how come this is true though?
I spared enough details, I think
figure it out
ok
Well I'll spell the argument out anyway just in case.
Let $x\in A$, then $x^{1/n}\leq (\sup A)^{1/n}$ since $x\leq \sup A$
since this holds for all $x\in A$, $(\sup A)^{1/n}$ is an upper bound for $A^{1/n}$
@sunny if $|\sin(k)|\le\sin(1/2)$, then $|\sin(k+1)|\ge\sin(1/2)$; are we good on that? if so, then, is it clear that $\sup\limits_{k\ge n}|\sin(k)|\ge\sin(1/2)$ for all $n$? So we have $\limsup\limits_{n\to\infty}|\sin(n)|=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\sup\limits_{k\ge n}|\sin(k)|\ge\sin(1/2)$.
@robjohn clear
@Jakobian thank you 👌
11:57
Okay, so what is the question about $\limsup\limits_{n\to\infty}|\sin(n)|^{1/n}=1$
$\limsup\limits_{n\to\infty}|\sin(n)|^{1/n}=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\sup\limits_{k\ge n}|\sin(k)|^{1/k}\ge\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\sin(1/2)^{1/n}=1$
Are you ready for the blue moon this month? @robjohn
@user726941 It's essentially here. It will be past full when it rises tonight.
@robjohn it has clarified now a lot, thank you, I just didn't understand at first how $\sup\limits_{k\ge n}|\sin(k)|^{1/k}\ge \sin(1/2)^{1/n}$ follows from $\sup\limits_{k\ge n}|\sin(k)|\ge\sin(1/2)$, but this follows I guess simply from the monotonicity of $f(x)=x^{1/n}$.
Look. $|\sin(k)|\ge\sin(1/2)$ at least every other $k$. so $|\sin(k)|^{1/k}\ge\sin(1/2)^{1/k}$ at least every other $k$. So $\sup\limits_{k\ge n}|\sin(k)|^{1/k}\ge\sin(1/2)^{1/(n-1)}$
Take the limit as $n\to\infty$
12:29
hi
12:42
is there any inequality like $(x+y)^2 \leq 2x^2 + 2y^2$ but for $(x+y)^{1/2}$?
$x,y \geq 0$
13:01
hello, gents
I have come from the far-off land of Code Golf Stack Exchange to make an inquiry about a math problem that I've been struggling with for a project I'm working on
specifically, zooming a virtual camera while keeping it centered on a point
13:25
nvm solved it
Glad we could help.
4
14:15
can someone help me with a question on derivatives. Let $g:\mathbb{R}^n\to \mathbb{R}$, let $\gamma$ be an index of length $n$ i.e $\gamma=(\gamma_1,\ldots,\gamma_n)$ and $\gamma_i \in \mathbb{N}\cup \{0\}$. This allows us to set the notation $\partial^\gamma_x g= \partial^{\gamma_1}_{x_{1}}\ldots \partial^{\gamma_n}_{x_n}g$.
Now for two functions $g,h$ is it true that (for some $\|\gamma\|^2=k$) by the product rule $\partial^\gamma_x (hg)$ is made up of terms of the form $\partial^{\eta}_x h \partial^{\tilde{\eta}}_x g$ where $\|\eta\|^2+\|\tilde{\eta}\|^2 \leq k$ ?
wait it should be $\|\eta\|^2+\|\tilde{\eta}\|^2 = k$
@robjohn Missing parentheses have confused me for the several days you guys have been writing this! (G’morning!)
@rogerroger Yes
14:51
now say $g,h:\mathbb{R}^n\times \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}$, and im interested in the terms of $\partial^\gamma_x\partial^\alpha_y (hg)$ (where $2\|\gamma\|^2+\|\alpha\|^2 \leq k $). Isnt it true that terms will be of teh form $\partial^{\eta}_x\partial^{\beta}_y h \partial^{\tilde{\eta}}_x\partial^{\tilde{\beta}}_y g $ with $2(\|\eta\|^2+\|\tilde{\eta}\|^2)+\|\beta\|^2+\|\tilde{\beta}\|^2\leq k$
@XanderHenderson the point which complicates this for me is the process of some followers ultimately becoming leaders themselves. which is sorta why stuff like MLMs are so dangerous---being able to see yourself simultaneously as a contractor and as a boss
15:06
@TedShifrin What parentheses would you add?
(point being i guess that, as useful as the follower/leader binary is, it is in some instances too rigid)
@robjohn As it stands, I read $(1/2)^{1/n}$.
The parentheses on $\sin(1/2)$ bind stronger than the exponent. I guess we could have written $\sin^{1/n}(1/2)$, but that looks horrible
For what you are reading, I would write $\sin\left((1/2)^{1/n}\right)$
15:23
Just saying …
I would write $(\sin 1/2)^n$ for clarity. More parens as you wish.
@TedShifrin personally, I dislike $\sin 1/2$ vs $\sin(1/2)$
I know that a lot of people write it that way
the $\sin$ of $1$ divided by $2$ :)
@robjohn A colleague of mine once gave a presentation in which she wrote $\ln 1 + N$. I asked "Isn't the log of 1 zero?". She was very confused, as she had clearly meant $\ln(1+N)$. I HATE this habit that certain people (and disciplines!) have of writing certain functions without parentheses.
I don’t argue that point.
Getting people to use parentheses in trigonometric and logarithm functions is my windmill. I will tilt at it until I die. X(
15:37
I wouldn't argue what Xander HATES
@XanderHenderson I'll back you there
Don Qui(x)ote
what's confusing should go, since there's alternatives
I agree
I agree with everyone
which brings me to my question
123
123
Hello Everyone...
Hi, Dr Nick.
Hello Dr. 123
123
123
15:53
:-)
eh. i think $\sin(2\theta)$ just looks worse than $\sin 2\theta$
but i do go for the parantheses if i think there's any possibility of confusion
$\mathrm{sin}(\space\space\space\space 2\theta)$
no
still no
2sin$\theta$cos$\theta$
@Semiclassical (1) Aesthetics are personal, and I disagree that $\sin 2\theta$ looks better than $\sin(2\theta)$, and (2) notation needs to be clear first and foremost; aesthetics second.
15:55
(1) yes, hence why i said "i think" :P
i won't dispute that it's unambiguous with parantheses
Notation is a gift and a curse
And thank goodness we went with Leibniz notation
eh, newton's notation is sometimes easier
but that's mostly a matter of convention, e.g., i only ever use $\dot{x}$ to do time derivatives
also being able to write $f^{(n)}(x)$ for the nth derivative, but tbf $(d/dx)^n f(x)$ or $d^n f/dx^n$ isn't that much worse
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