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22:01
now suppose i take a slice with some plane, and project that 2D convex subset onto another plane. this is going to at least be a subset of what i'd get if i just projected the full 3D solid onto the other plane to begin with
Projection and intersection are in some sense dual …
but under what conditions would you expect that what you get is the entire 3D shadow?
i.e., that taking a particular slice first doesn't change the shadow on some particular plane?
This must relate to the apparent contour we discussed before. It has to be a planar curve.
(It's showing up because I constructed a certain convex set by projecting the entire solid, whereas an earlier paper does so by slicing first and then projecting. but somehow we get the same picture...)
hmm
Its projection onto the plane is the boundary of the projection of the whole thing.
22:05
right, that's a much simpler way to put it
@TedShifrin this is perhaps a good point to note that my solid of interest is known to have the following properly: its polar dual is affinely equivalent to itself
dunno if it's related, but since duality came up...
Well, I’m not sure how to make my vague duality statement precise, but I think I used to know.
projective duality?
But your criterion holds iff the apparent contour curve lies in a parallel plane …. I think.
there is some pretty neat math going on which i wish i understood better. there's actually three nested convex bodies here, which inclusions $\mathcal{C}\subset\mathcal{Q}\subset{\mathcal{N}}$
polar duality gives three additional bodies such that $\mathcal{N}^\circ \subset \mathcal{Q}^\circ\subset \mathcal{C}^\circ$
the fun bit is that each entry in the second list is affinely equivalent to the corresponding entry in the first
@TedShifrin this paper refers to section/projection-duality: sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0022123611002965
the first line of the abstract: "In this paper, we show that the well-known duality operation in the context of convex bodies in RR^n is completely characterized by its property of interchanging sections with projections."
and the duality operation they have in mind is precisely polar duality
so i think we're talking about the same thing?
Yeah, must be.
22:22
Hi :) Does this work for infinite cardinals $a,b$? I believe so . . . I might ask a question about it but my grasp of infinite cardinals is weak.
at least some of the solutions seem to be bungling the "only if" direction, so if you're wondering about that, you might be right to wonder.
@leslietownes Who, me?
yes, shaun, you.
@Shaun is this even true?
I'm beginning to doubt, @Jakobian.
22:29
the author didn't mention surjective... eh
either way, $|F_\kappa| = \kappa$ for $\kappa$ an infinite cardinal, I believe
They say "onto".
so assume AC, as any sane person would, this should be true in the infinite case
ah, they do say that
choice is an illusion all is predetermined
If $a\leq b$ then a surjective homomorphism $F_b\to F_a$ obviously exists by restricting generators
Conversely if such homomorphism exists then $|F_b|\geq |F_a|$. If $a$ is infinite, we are done from previous result
Awesome, thank you, @Jakobian :)
22:35
if a is finite maybe you abelianize and make some argument about rank to rule out a > b?
i dunno
well there's still the last bit, proving that a homomorphism $F_n\to F_\omega$ onto doesn't exist
oh and that
it's definitely nontrivial.
i'm not sure one would get that impression from any of the posted answers :)
shaun are trying to earn the 'necromancer' badge for doing something relating to a question from many years ago
because whether you are or not, this could be a golden opportunity
@leslietownes I think this boils down to something like "$F_\omega$ can't be written in terms of finite amount of generators" which should be a theorem in some book (about geometric group theory?)
just like how the answers tried to claim
Number, not amount.
is that the same as not being finitely-generated?
22:40
jakobian i think so, i just wonder how many of the answers were even aware of this
or if this is one of those deals where, "for it to be otherwise would be contrary to the nature of a straight line"
In the mathematical subject of group theory, the rank of a group G, denoted rank(G), can refer to the smallest cardinality of a generating set for G, that is rank ⁡ ( G ) = min { | X | : X ⊆ G , ⟨ X ⟩ = G } . \operatorname {rank} (G)=\min\{|X|:X\subseteq G,\langle X\rangle =G\}. If G is a finitely generated group, then the rank of G is a nonnegative integer. The notion of rank of a group is a group-theoretic...
free group on $\kappa$ amount of generators has rank $\kappa$
according to this article
i find that easier to see with abelianization than i do at the level of free groups
although i'm wondering if any treatment i've ever read of rank of abelian groups treated the infinite case with any subtlety
general abelian groups are nightmarish
@TedShifrin wdym. This is the same word
don't poke the beast
Learn some English.
22:44
ted, you might like this. the other day my wife asked munchkin a question and munchkin responded: "there was something in your talk that i don't know"
(the question involved the word 'toiletries,' which munchkin did not know)
She didn’t want to say ”speech,” for fear of suggesting politics.
@Jakobian No, they are not the same word.
ted doesn't like it when we don't talk good
@XanderHenderson they mean the same thing
@Jakobian Not quite, not.
22:46
stop trolling me
Jan 15 at 19:15, by Ted Shifrin
Number, not amount.
"Amount" is used with collective or mass nouns, "number" is used with count nouns.
Sep 22, 2022 at 1:20, by Ted Shifrin
Number, not amount.
Interesting how stubborn some people can be out of ignorance. Speaking of politics.
"Number of generators" vs "amount of salt."
22:48
jakobian ted is 100% right about this, but right in the way that only an english teacher can be right
Well, you can’t teach math to a point-set topology nerd.
here he is doing it with me
Jan 29, 2022 at 19:56, by Ted Shifrin
BTW, certain number of hours, or certain amount of legal education. Grr.
2
@XanderHenderson vs number of salt crystals
@Semiclassical Indeed.
ah. I see the difference
22:49
Nice citation, leslie.
to not spam with images, i'll make a separate room
if the world of english speakers were to fight a war over this, jakobian, our side would win, but we would put "it was number, not amount" on ted's gravestone, and we would know in our hearts that ted was right about it
If you even have hearts …
my go-to for this
user image
2
@leslietownes so it's a language purist type of thing?
22:53
No.
This is not ain’t versus isn’t.
Every language I know has the same distinction.
jakobian: it's a distinction that does exist in the language, even if many speakers are unaware of it (most people) or do not acknowledge it (me). it's a "real" difference and not just a schoolmarm thing
@Jakobian No, in this case, native speakers are going to hear what you say, and it is going to sound wrong to most of them.
Well, there are plenty of American native speakers who can’t tell what’s correct.
Descriptively, the vast majority of native English speakers simply wouldn't say "amount of generators", and would find it subtly wrong.
Probably not so true in Britain. But I don’t know.
22:56
@leslietownes why do you not acknowledge it then?
But we are not the uneducated, ignorant masses in this chatroom.
jakobian: no reason, i just don't pay too much attention to how i use language outside of formal settings
@TedShifrin Yeah, I'm not going to follow you that far. "Amount of generators" is wrong, but only because nearly everyone who speaks English natively would perceive it as wrong. There is no reason that the language couldn't shift in such a way as to make it "right"; it just hasn't.
trying to imagine a world in which the vast majority of english speakers have any reason whatsoever to talk about generators
What amount of tires do you need to buy?
22:58
i'm not fighting the underlying point :), it's just funny how it's arising in a context that would only arise in math discussion
And telling people that their language is "wrong" or "uneducated" is often used as a cudgel to discriminate against people. The "amount" vs "number" thing is pretty universal, but "ask" vs "aks", or "needs washed" vs "needs to be washed" are cultural / regional.
I agree with that.
Thank you for pointing out my error. Leslie doesn't need to care because he is a native speaker, but I should
it's wrong in practice vs wrong in theory, more or less
@Jakobian Yeah, learn to f'in' English, bruh!
23:01
amount of generators is wrong in practice, b/c it would perplex native speakers
my wife sometimes thinks i choose incorrect words to annoy her, because she is very much "team ted" when it comes to using language correctly when you know it is possible to do so, but most of the time i'm just not paying attention
Sorry, I mean "Lern to English".
As I said, this is a universal issue across most (if not all) languages.
and maybe only 15% of the time deliberately choosing the wrong word to annoy her
but yeah if i were in an environment where people might be judging me for how i used language, i would talk more like ted and less like myself
@leslietownes I used to do the same thing. Maybe that's why she left? :/
23:01
certainly if i were editing a written document i would correct the amount/number thing if it was wrong
I still do the same thing to my daughter.
Munchkin will learn from you.
oh boy did my daughter pick that up. one of the first things she learned to do after learning how to sing the ABCs, was how to get laughs from me by singing the ABCs wrong (or as ted would say "incorrectly")
That versus which is something I correct in my writing, not always in my speech.
munchkin would start out A B C D E and then start doing letters at random and it would just drive my wife up the wall
23:03
She’s a smart twit!
@TedShifrin Yeah, I have a really hard time with that one. I second guess myself every single time I have to write one or the other. Same with affect and effect.
I’m a language nut …
@TedShifrin hash tag me also
Almost always affect is a verb only, but effect can be both.
Which is why I know that this is a problem that I have.
23:05
The effects and effect a change, but you affected the outcome.
@TedShifrin Oh, intellectually, I know. But "affect" as a noun is a thing, too. But it describes behaviour (more or less).
Yes, that’s rare, though.
In any event, I get affect/effect right about 99 times out of 100, and then I look at it and go "Wait, that isn't right..."
The change is back and forth 17 times before looking it up on Google and determining that I got it right the first time.
@Semiclassic Did you check out my apparent contour claim?
23:07
trying to figure out how atm
but wanted to get the images down there
i do know what the boundary curves for the slice image are
so that's a start
Where is the surface normal orthogonal to the normal of the projection plane?
23:23
Japanese is even more painful to learn than English.
It is so heavily dependent on context that some words and phrases can mean something entirely different to their literal meaning just because context.
also tonality matters a lot
Yeah, and intonation in Asian languages completely changes meanings.
Semiclassic beat me.
I'm pretty sure that Japanese is not a tonal language.
what Xander said
I was thinking about what I’d been told about Chinese.
23:26
yeah, Chinese, Thai
Chinese meaning, something like Mandarin
@冥王Hades yep, that's part of why google translate works so poorly with Japanese
Uchu means universe in Japanese, Uchuu Kukan means outer space, but uchu kukan literally translates to “space of the universe”, but then most Japanese just use uchu to describe outer space…
I don’t know why I even bother
even more difficult is learning the Japanese alphabet though
Hiragana and katakana are easier but kanji is a nightmare.
@XanderHenderson My wife and I cringe every time the commercial comes on that talks about "less diaper changes".
@robjohn Ouch.
23:35
Also when someone says “Hoshi-tachi” they can either mean planets or stars because….Japanese uses the same word for both
Here, the grocery store gets it right: "15 items or fewer".
That is an enlightened store
I know our grocery store gets it wrong.
And don’t even get me started on the million different uses of the word ちょっと
I have 14.7356 items
@冥王Hades like this?
23:40
:-)
@冥王Hades In Polish we also omit person pronouns, but we still keep them as suffixes on certain words
in other Slavic languages this can also happen, but iirc less often
@TedShifrin found the contour which forms the relevant boundary from the (2,0,-1) direction: it's the curve traced by $(x,y,z)=(4t^3-3t,t,t)$
@Jakobian It happens a lot in Russian.
which indeed lies in the $y=z$ slice plane
also there's no such thing as a gender neutral "they" unless you want to call someone an "it"
23:46
I would imagine that it is not uncommon in a lot of flexive langauges.
@XanderHenderson I heard that it happens less often in Russian
@Jakobian I don't speak Polish, so I couldn't comment on the comparison.
I don't speak Russian, so it's not my opinion either
But Russian will often omit pronouns for the subject of a sentence.
Since the verb conjugation clear that up.
well, the lack of "they" is unique to Polish, I think
as a way to refer to one person, that is
23:49
blah, ignore the above. i'm rechecking it
I heard that this is partly because of hatred for communism in Poland
@Jakobian In Russian, он / она / оно are third-person singular (masculine "he", feminine "she", neuter "it"; neuter is not generally used for people, though my recollection is that the word for "baby" is grammatically neuter). они is third-person plural ("they").
I believe that you are suggesting that Polish doesn't have a third-person singular pronoun.
A quick Googling suggests that детя (child) is grammatically neuter, which gels with my recollection.
So children are neuter.
(Not used to seeing that word used in the singular...)
I think I mixed things up
we have the word "wy" which is second person
in the past it could be used as a polite way to refer to someone
a singular person
23:56
@TedShifrin got it now, i think, in that same room. bottom line is that the boundary curve for the $(0,-2,1)$ direction lies in the $y=z$ plane
which i think is precisely what you said it should do
nowadays in Poland rather than saying "you" to one singular person, you should say Pani/Pan which is more like "mister/miss"
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