Hi. I am new to SE. I left an answer to a question a few months ago, and it appears someone marked it as a "low quality post." Two others reviewed it as "looks okay." I genuinely am curious what made the person mark it as low quality, as I am just looking to learn. Is there a way to contact this person about it?
not that i am aware of. it is basically impossible to know why people do what they do on the site (and even if whoever that was was here, and they probably aren't, there is no guarantee that what they said would be honest or in any way helpful). thankfully the site is designed so that no one user's opinion has too much influence.
In computing $\lim_{n\to\infty}f_{n}(x)$, where $f_n(x)=\sqrt{nx}\arctan\frac{1}{nx}$, my approach is the following; write $\arctan\frac{1}{nx}=\frac{\pi}{2}-\arctan nx$, then $$\lim_{n\to\infty}f_{n}(x)=\sqrt{nx}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\arctan nx\right),$$ but now what? We have $[\infty\cdot 0]$.
@XanderHenderson Is there a small-angle approximation for $\arctan$ like there is for $\sin$? I haven't found anything online on this, though it seems reasonable if I look on its graph.
Either way digital topology sounds like something touching more on manifolds or algebraic topology rather than general topology from what I read on wikipedia
Well, I still have no idea what the notation means, but perhaps it means functions with two derivatives, where the second derivative is $\alpha$-Hölder continuous?
@user223626865 I think that this is one of those places where the student needs to read the argument carefully, and figure out why that half-sentence is important (or just skip by it as an unimportant detail).
While it is not my own personal style (I'm very wordy for a mathematician), there is an argument in favor of only writing out the details which are strictly necessary for solving the problem at hand. The reader is assumed to be capable of filling in small gaps.
I have come up with a novel construction that I call the Twisted Poincare Web (TPW) It's when you take infinity copies of the Poincare groupoid and let the disjoint union of the objects form what is called the $\Delta$-base which may or may not be a discrete set. You link these Poincare groupoids together in nontrivial ways, by linking the morphisms
Obviously we can use the completeness of the real numbers (least upper bound axiom, or one of the equivalent principles) to prove the IVT. Can we go in the opposite direction?
This isn't a homework problem or something. I'm just wondering. If the answer is "yes", then I'm not really asking for ...
The problem is when you come up with incredibly good ideas like the TPW, you have a lot of work cut out for you to make everything rigorous. In fact you might find that halfway there, you can't make anything rigourous
thankfully those theorems of calculus still hold for polynomials over real-closed fields
so at least some of it is salvageable to polynomials
does anyone know of any sort of maps between real-closed fields that would act similarly to continuous functions on $\mathbb{R}$, other than polynomials?
@user223626865 I didn't disagree that others might have the same difficulty. I suggested that it was intentional, and a matter of style. Many authors choose to elide details as part of their pedagogy.
@TedShifrin Good morning. The pup is fine. My older dog and I were attacked by yellow jackets Sunday evening. We spent both days this weekend in the emergency vet
I'd say a good book is one that finds balance between not giving answers to the reader too much, but not leaving everything for the reader to figure out
"Break a leg" is a typical English idiom used in the context of theatre or other performing arts to wish a performer "good luck". An ironic or non-literal saying of uncertain origin (a dead metaphor), "break a leg" is commonly said to actors and musicians before they go on stage to perform or before an audition. Though the term likely originates in German, the English expression is first attributed in the 1930s or possibly 1920s, originally documented without specifically theatrical associations. Among professional dancers, the traditional saying is not "break a leg", but the French word "merde...
the chapter that assumes knowledge of real-closed fields is a bit worse but it's understandable that they assumed it
It's not that big of an issue since I can complete my knowledge by studying some field theory, and then a bit from a book about real algebraic geometry
I find it interesting that to prove uniqueness of real-closure of an ordered field one has to prove such things as Sturm's theorem for real-closed fields
something I did know for polynomials over R (but forgot)
@Jakobian Thanks for the note. I wasn't looking to contest it, but I was just interested in hearing why their reasoning, in case I could potentially learn something. All good, though.
@robjohn I managed to prove the $AD=DE$ part by construction a cyclic quadrilateral. I suspect the latter has something to do with constructing side lengths that themselves are equivalent to $AE$
Hmm, I have the following sequence of functions $$f_n(x)=\left(\frac{x}{1+x}\right)^n\frac{1}{1+x},\quad n\geq 1,$$ and I'm trying to determine their uniform convergence on $[0,\infty)$. I have calculated the pointwise limit to be $0$ for all $x$ (hopefully this is correct), but how do I tackle computing $\sup_{x\in [0,\infty)}\left|\left(\frac{x}{1+x}\right)^n\frac{1}{1+x}\right|$. Any hints are appreciated.
@shintuku It would be amazing. But the early reports are that the paper is rather shoddy, and doesn't give much confidence in the quality of their work. Ok, maybe they rushed to put the paper out, but still...
sunny: in general remember that you don't necessarily need to be able to evaluate that sup as a function of n to show the uniform convergence (or disprove it). you just need to bound it in such a way that you can show it goes to 0, or analyze it in some fashion to find that it cannot go to 0.
sunny: here however you can use calculus to see that f_n is increasing on [0,n] and decreasing on [n, infty) and so sup_x f_n(x) = f_n(n) which is at most 1/(1+n) and that is enough to show it goes to 0.
if you stare at the formula for a while you can see that f_n(n) is not just "at most 1/(n+1)" bbut about 1/e 1/(n+1) when n is large.
but i would not be able to expect to find formulas for these sups in general, even in otherwise tractable problems
yes, using the quotient rule [regarded as the quotient x^n/[(1+x)^(n+1)] and bearing in mind that as we care only about the sign of the derivative for this analysis, we care only about the numerator, and the common factors of x^(n-1) and (1+x)^n (which are nonnegative due to the domain of x) that appear in various terms there do not affect the analysis.
i.e. while the algebra looks goofy, on (0,infty) analyzing the sign of f_n'(x) is the same thing as analyzing the sign of n-x
Hi :) In linear algebra, there's algebraic multiplicity and there's geometric multiplicity. I remember from the undergraduate days that there's at least one other type of multiplicity. Please would anyone refresh my memory? I can't seem to find the other(s) anywhere . . .
do you mean a 'multiplicity' as specifically associated with an eigenvalue of a linear map on a finite dimensional vector space? or just some other use of the word? the word is used elsewhere, e.g. for polynomials or other functions, even when one has no linear map in mind.
probably a zillion senses of it in algebraic geometry.
@TedShifrin Yes, I think that's the definition! Thank you! I'm arranging for my undergraduate linear algebra notes to be sent my way, so I might update you on what it is if you want.
ted's so old that when he uses chalk to lecture, he sometimes recognizes the plankton minerals in it from when the plankton were alive. this leads to some poignant moments at the beginning of his multivariable calc videos.
@冥王Hades I'm glad. I had to go out for some appointments, so I didn't get to work on it much. I think it can be solved via trig fairly simply, but as I said, I haven't worked on it.
trying to think through the following geometry problem, specifically to convince myself that it actually makes sense. (i can substantiate it algebraically but not geometrically)
Suppose I have two pairs of vectors $(a_1,a_2), (b_1,b_2)$
bleh, shouldn't have started before i was confident of it
(because each pair is like a pair of scissors blah blah blah)
wasn't planning to use coordinates if i could help it (though i do know one way)
Suppose I have two pairs of 3-vectors $(a_1,b_1), (a_2,b_2)$, with dot products $x=a_1\cdot b_1$ and $y=a_2\cdot b_2$. There is obviously quite a bit of freedom in this, since i can reorient either pair while keeping its angle fixed
Can I always choose these pairs so that $a_1\cdot a_2=b_1\cdot b_2$?
would anything stop you from choosing a_1 = a_2 = b_1 = b_2 all of the time (so the dot product is 1 and you still get to choose which unit vector they all are)? are there other constraints?
okay, so you're definitely fixing x and y (which other than "being the dot products of unit vectors", which does impose some constraint, might be arbitrary)
and then looking at the 'other' pair of dot products
I think the spherical quadrilateral way to say this is: suppose I tell you two side lengths of a spherical quadrilateral. is it possible that the two remaining side lengths are equal?
and if it is, what possible values are there for these two remaining side lengths (in terms of the given side lengths)
@TedShifrin I'll be shocked if it actually hurts Trump's standing in the elections, however. It's not like anyone who was going to vote for him is going to change their minds because a clearly bought-and-sold court handed down some phony charges. :/
I think I need to change my affiliation to "Republican" for this election, so that I can actually vote in the primaries. Since it doesn't look like anyone is going to attempt to primary Biden. :(
the whole notion of "swing voters" strikes me as dubious. it assumes that each party has roughly equal blocks of voters they can reliably turn out, and thus a small percentage of uncommitted voters can make a difference