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00:53
@TedShifrin If $f:M\to N$ is a branched covering map with $p\in M$ a branched point of order $n$, then I can find local coordinates on $p$ and $f(p)$ such that $f:\Bbb D\to\Bbb D$, $f(z) = z^n$ that vanishes on $p$ and $f(p)$ respectively. Then I consider $0$ as a fixed point.
Maybe the expression fixed point is not a very good idea
01:06
When it’s a map between two different spaces, no, fixed point isn’t cook.
It’s the branch-switching map that has a fixed point.
01:17
Ah I see. Branch-switching map. Then how can I visualize a branched point? Several sheets with points identified?
Right. Think about your $z^n$ local model. With hyperelliptic curves, just do $n=2$.
 
3 hours later…
04:49
Quick question, for $S^1$ the circle, why are the two sets $U_x = \{ (x,y) \in S^1: x \ neq 0 \}$ and $U_y = \{ (x,y) \in S^1: y\ neq 0 \}$ not charts but cutting them up into two pieces suddenly is? Are the sets $U_x $ and $U_y$ not homemoprhic to an open set in $R^n$?
05:12
$\Bbb R^1$
You have to give the mappings, not just the sets.
It would be $f(x,y) = \sqrt{1 - x^2 - y^2}$ where $(x,y) \in S^1$
What you wrote makes no sense.
Moreover, what is the definition of a chart?
05:39
It's a pair of an open set and a homemophism to R. But i think i m seeing what is wrong. If I try to define a chart on my $U_x$, I am trying to write a map $\phi(x = \pm \sqrt{1 - y^2},y) = y$. I think I am violating some part of the implicit function theorem and that's why my $(U_x, \phi)$ can't be a chart.
0
Q: Find the solution of the differential equation $\frac{xdy-ydx}{x^2+y^2}=0.$

Fdst ZfsyFind the solution of the differential equation $\frac{xdy-ydx}{x^2+y^2}=0.$ I though this was quite an obvious differential equation. Hence, I proceeded to solve like this: Given, $\frac{xdy-ydx}{x^2+y^2}=0.$ We can write this as, $$\frac{xdy}{x^2+y^2}=\frac{ydx}{x^2+y^2}=0\implies xdy=ydx\impli...

Hi all! Can anyone please help me to understand where I went wrong ?
05:55
So the usual chart map will be $\phi(x,y) = y$. This won’t be one-to-one on your $U_x&.
06:06
2
Q: Can this given $f: S^1\to \mathbb C$ be extended to a continuous $F: \overline{\mathbb D}\to \mathbb C, F$ is holomorphic on $\mathbb D$?

KoroSuppose that $f: \mathbb S^1\to \mathbb C$ is continuous such that $f(z)=f(\bar z)$ for all $z\in \mathbb S^1$. Can it be extended to a continuous $F: \overline{\mathbb D}\to \mathbb C$ such that $ F$ is holomorphic on $\mathbb D$? If $f$ is constant, then the result is obviously true. So suppose...

I realized my mistake here: $\int_{S^1} F(z) z^{k-1}dz, k\ge 1$ need not be zero because F need not be holomorphic on $S^1$. We only have continuity of $F$.
oh right, one-to-one. Thanks.
06:59
Late night question: In combinatoric game theory, are there any "fuzzy" games whose sum is also a fuzzy game?
07:29
In an inner product space, is it true that $(a_n,b_n)\to (x,y)$ iff $a_n\to x, b_n\to y$?
$\Leftarrow$ direction is true.
But what about the $\Rightarrow$ implication?
I think it's not true.
Say $a_n$'s are in some S, and $b_n$'s are in S perp, then the limit is 0 but x and y can be chosen to be anything from S and S perp respectively.
another observation: $(x,y)= (x/c, \bar c y)$ where $c\ne 0$.
so no.
To get rid of this last bit, suppose that I have $(a, b_n)\to (a,b)$. Can I conclude that $b_n\to b$?
@Koro Your example with $b_n$ picked in a $a^\perp$ still works
thanks.
Now, let's put an extra condition: $b_n$ has a convergent subsequence.
suppose that the subsequence converges to some $c$.
Can I say that b=c?
I think we still can't.
But we can say so if I put an another condition, so the revised conjecture is: In an inner product normed space (or let's take Hilbert space) if $(a,b_n)\to (a,b)$ for every $a$ in the space and $b_n$ has a cgt. subsequence with limit c, then c=b.
Proof: $(a,b_{n_k})\to (a,c)=(a,b)$ (because $\Leftarrow$ above is true.). So we have $(a,b-c)=0$ for every $a$, in particular for a=b-c. Q.E.D.
08:35
@FdstZfsy Your questions seem to have been answered, no?
koro: i get lost in those last few sentences. what is b? (are you assuming or proving that the whole sequence b_n is norm convergent?)
@Koro the same problem arises
note for example that if you interleave an orthonormal basis of an infinite dimensional hilbert space with a sequence of zeros, you get a sequence b_n satisfying (1) (a,b_n) converges to 0 = (a,0) for all a in the space, (2) (b_n) has a lot of subsequences that are norm convergent to 0, (3) (b_n) itself is not norm convergent to anything
There can be two or more convergent subsequences.
but so many hypotheses were being swapped in and out in the discussion above that i'm not sure if this bears any relation to your problem
08:43
Let $a=\langle 1,0\rangle$ and $b_n=\left\langle0,(-1)^n\right\rangle$
you might search around MSE for questions about various circumstances under which weak convergence can imply convergence in norm. such circumstances do exist but they are not everywhere
a lot of the 'pass to a subsequence' things that people do in functional analysis are sometimes necessary, in that you can't always go all the way back to your original sequence to get the same limiting behavior. this is maybe a big part of the general vibe of why people introduce topologies other than the norm topology
robjohn gives a very good example, my example shows that you can't get around the issue by orthogonality conditions (e.g. "what if nothing is orthogonal to {b_n} except the zero vector", maybe already mentioned above in connection with "S" and "S perp", but not clearly a part of the same question)
 
1 hour later…
10:00
Trying to define some integral composition of functions along some nonassociative convergent net
$$\int_{y\to\ell_{2}}\int_{x\to \ell_{1}} \mathcal{G}\circ \mathcal{H} d T = \lim_{y \to\ell_{2}}\int_y^{id} G\lim_{x\to \ell_1} \int_x^{\circ} H d[U]d[V]$$
where
$$\int_{x\to \ell_{1}} \mathcal{G}dT =\lim_{x\to\ell_1} \int_x^{id} G d[U] = \left(\mathscr{R} \circ \mathscr{M}\right)_{L_1}\circ G= \left(\lim_{I \to L_1}\prod_{i \in I} F_i\right)\circ G = \left(\lim_{I \to L_1} A\circ B \circ C \circ D \cdots \right) \circ G$$
where > < is some function that conveys something like "< a but > b"
10:53
what's a good topological space to study to understand how a cauchy sequence might not converge?
$\mathbb{Q}$
oh
i get it
hm. is there a topological space where a cauchy sequence doesn't converge to a point outside the space either?
"point outside the space" doesn't make a whole lot of sense
but to answer the spirit of this question, any metric space (which is the setting in which Cauchy sequences make sense) embeds as a dense subset into another metric space, which is complete
i see, thanks for pointing out the proper way to think about it
11:55
If $U_n$:open such that $U_n\subset U_{n+1}$ for each $n\geq 1$ such that there is a closed set $F$ contained in $\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty U_n$, then $F\subset U_n$ for some large $n$? Ambient space is $\Bbb R^m$ (for simplicity).
12:05
@geocalc33 Sure. You don't need to worry about the sum inside the zeta functions, Sage knows how to handle that. Eg, if you ask for zeta(2) it returns pi^2/6. It can also do sums, including infinite sums, symbolically.
OTOH, for this task we really don't want Sage to compute stuff symbolically. If we feed it the Gram series with k going to infinity it will create a symbolic expression that it can't evaluate numerically. If you set an upper limit on k it produces a huge symbolic expression which it can evaluate, but it's rather slow. And you then need to figure out what's an appropriate upper k for a given x, and the numeric precision that you want.
Fortunately, there's an alternative strategy: mpmath, which is included with Sage. mpmath has a variety of tools for handling infinite sums, and it has an excellent built-in zeta function. mpmath.org/doc/current/index.html
Is it possible that Fatou set is empty?
Here's a demo comparing Sage & mpmath computations of G(x). The expression g(xx).n(digits=digits) does the numeric conversion. print g(xx) to see the horrendous symbolic expression. ;)
@onepotatotwopotato don't we have $\bigcup U_n = \mathbb R^m$?
Why?
I don't assume that
hm right
so $\bigcup U_n \neq \mathbb R^m$, so the closure of $U_n$ in $\mathbb R^m$ converges to the closure of$\bigcup U_n$ in $\mathbb R^m$, so we can't have $F$ sharing the same closure, therefore $F$'s closure is closer to the center of $U_1$ than $\bigcup U_n$'s @onepotatotwopotato
so there is a distance between the closure of $F$ and the closure of $\bigcup U_n$, so there must be an $U_n$ who's closure is there
if you suppose $\bigcup U_n = \mathbb R^m$ then we trivially have $F$ in there
12:47
@shintuku The union is taken to be infinitely many
yeah, and the union is either equal to R^m or not. if it is, then clearly F in some U_i. if it isn't then the closure of U_i must converge to the closure of the union
and F cannot have the same closure as the union because it is closed
F's closure must be strictly within the closure of the union, since the union is open
therefore there is a distance separating their closures, and there is an U_i whose closure is inbetween
If it's infinitely many, the inclusion maybe proper
proper i.e. strict?
if F is a strict subset of the union then even more clearly we have an U_n who's closure is between the closure of F and the union
I mean closure
the union of open sets is open
wait i don't know the infinite case
confirmed, it is still open
13:17
@onepotatotwopotato $U_n=(-n,n)$ and $F=\mathbb{R}$?
Three people answer the same answer at once
The note I'm reading use that fact and I wondered why and while I'm typing the question, I realized the ambient space is compact.
13:54
@PM2Ring I figured it out last night, but you're right this way is slow. Thanks!
14:27
@geocalc33 No worries. Sage has a built-in prime_pi function, but it's a bit slow when you want to calculate it for lots of values. It's ok for 10,000 or so values, but it's not great. My Numpy version is much faster.
 
2 hours later…
16:19
3
Q: Solve the differential equation $(2x^3y+4x^3-12xy^2+3y^2-xe^y+e^{2x})dy+(12x^2y+2xy^2+4x^3-4y^3+2ye^{2x}-e^y)dx=0.$

Fdst ZfsySolve the differential equation $(2x^3y+4x^3-12xy^2+3y^2-xe^y+e^{2x})dy+(12x^2y+2xy^2+4x^3-4y^3+2ye^{2x}-e^y)dx=0.$ I tried solving the problem like this: We assume $M=(12x^2y+2xy^2+4x^3-4y^3+2ye^{2x}-e^y)$ and $N=(2x^3y+4x^3-12xy^2+3y^2-xe^y+e^{2x}).$ Now, we observe, $\frac{\partial M}{\parti...

Can anyone please help me get over this dilemma?
@robjohn Sorry, for responding this late, but no I am not clarified yet.
First of all, I want to know, whether this method is valid or not?
Second of all, for my previous of my two posts, I am getting flooded with ambiguous answers.
17:07
No, your method is certainly not valid. If you have $(P_1+P_2)dx+(Q_1+Q_2)dy=0$, there's no reason that this should imply $P_1\,dx+Q_1\,dy=0$ and $P_2\,dx+Q_2\,dy=0$. The converse is true, yes. Just try a simple case: Can you solve $dx+dy=0$ by setting $dx=0$ and $dy=0$? Of course not.
17:28
@FdstZfsy See my response above. I forgot to ping you.
I believe what Fdst Zfsy was asking me was about this question.
I was responding to the one he just linked.
@FdstZfsy The problem with solving $x\,\mathrm{d}y-y\,\mathrm{d}x=0$ is that it we get to $\log(y/x)=c$, as you said, which gives $y=e^cx$. As was mentioned in comments, this implies that the constant is positive (unless one expands the underlying space to $\mathbb{C}$). One way to get passed this is to use $\log(|x|)+C$ as the indefinite integral for $\frac1x$. Then we get $|y/x|=e^c$, which gives $y=\pm e^cx$.
The '$\pm$' can be rolled into the constant, letting $m=\pm e^c$ and get $y=mx$ for any real constant $m$.
@TedShifrin I know
Yes, it's interesting to throw away the denominator of $d\theta$ and think the solutions are different :) Of course, the arctan is only partly correct.
at least one can get any real value for $y/x$
oh, no, that's not right. You're correct
17:34
Funny: We turn a closed $1$-form (locally exact differential) into a non-exact differential because it's easier to solve. :) I don't usually think this way.
Oh, wait. I keep flipping which side the tan is on. You can get all real constants.
in a metric space for any open cover there exists a radius r s.t. any r-ball is contained in at least one element of the cover
how can i see the truth of this, i can't manage to convince myself
not a proof
why can't we have an infinite open cover whose elements become progressively smaller
That is not necessarily true... cover the reals $\ge1$ with balls centered at $\log(n)$ with radius $\frac1n$.
oh no, i forgot the extremely nontrivial and defining element of this problem
the space is compact
Ah, then any open cover has a finite subcover
Then you can do it
17:45
sorry again, i meant sequential compactness
the proof to go from sequential compactness to compactness uses the above mentioned lemma (to do a proof without contradiction)
it seems more intuitive to me that, given a sequentially compact space, represented by a square in R^2, there's a way to cover it sort of like a geometric series on a square
then the covering subsets get infinitely smaller, so there's no place we can find a minimal subset size
Hi. Can anyone help me with this question about Boolean function minimization I posted a while ago? math.stackexchange.com/questions/4484690/…
i'm going to go search for some spaces that don't have equivalence between sequential compactness and usual compactness to see if that makes this issue clearer
@shintuku You can’t. You need a metric space for the statement to make sense.
18:01
hm, the notion of an r-ball
Define ball without a metric?
right
Anyhow, you can easily do a proof by contradiction using sequential compactness. I assigned that every year in my multivariable math class.
at the bare least, the above mentioned method will fail to contain the sort of limit to these covering attempts, so that specific example fails
18:09
this sort of attempt to cover the square won't contain the 'limit', so it's not a cover
i'll see how i can use sequential compactness
thanks for the suggestion
18:50
yep that's the proof, any attempt to cover a square this way leaves out the limit
19:02
Time for a new field of calculus:
$\frac{d^{f(x)}}{d^{f(x)}x} f(x) = ?$

I call this “variable-squared calculus”
19:31
@shintuku what you're talking about is called the Lebesgue number lemma
The proof if easy once you know the correct trick, you can read it from wikipedia
@Alessandro I purposely didn't give the name because I wanted to let shin figure it out himself :)
Woops
To be honest it's not the kind of statement I expect people to figure out on their own
I don't think I would have been able to figure out the proof myself when I first encountered this lemma (iirc this was in algebraic topology, I think it's used when proving excision for singular homology at some point? After doing some barycentric subdivisions maybe)
@AlessandroCodenotti Ted made me suffer for a few days trying to do the proof when it was asked in his book.....😭😭
With some hints it's doable
Also Ted is a far better teacher than I am, so I'd trust his opinion on this one
Don't give him the satisfaction of exerting his brand pain. 😂
19:43
i did the proof
before alessandro's tag sunglasses
you construct a sequence left out of a finite number of cover elements, then get their point of convergence with sequential compactness
and that point is outside any infinite covering attempt
thanks for the tag to the proper theorem tho
but uh i've been reading similar proofs i wasn't able to understand so it wasn't really my idea
@D.C.theIII That might have been the finite subcover exercise, as I recall.
I'll tell you now since I have the text open. I also have a question about how to assign variables.
Yes it was #13 - Sec 5.1
20:01
I assigned both, but the particular struggle I recall with you ….
Lol...think it had to do with the logic in deducing things
Logic? What’s dat?
it's a type of irish jig some lawyers do
it used to be spelled law-jig in middle english
it was popularized by the irish catolic church and their readings of ancient greek dancers like aristotle
At the end of the last video yo set up the problem of finding the integral over the region between $y = 2x^2, y = x, xy = 1, xy = 3$. You did the variable assignment of $u = xy$ and $v = y/x$. I could see why you would choose $u = xy$, because it should give us simple constants when we look at things in terms of $u$, but how did you choose $v = y/x$?
if you don't want to remember all that @TedShifrin it was at this point: youtu.be/Rup0XQ8pzgM?t=2828
To simplify $y=x$.
Sometimes the function one’s integrating is a hint, too.
20:11
So what we want to do with our choices is simplify each of the boundaries of the initial region.
So in the $v = y/x$ case we are turning $y$ into a scalar multiple of $x$, but we will be using that scalar (in this case $v$) to be one of the boundaries of the simplified region.
let me see how you treat things in the next video and I'll come back if I have questions about it
don't forget to try law-jig first
dancing releases endorphins which improves cognition
over rated process, goal is to be an automaton
logic requires too much expenditure of energy.
20:43
Can someone help me here:
0
Q: How can I prove this characterisation of measures being absolutely continuous?

user1294729 Let us consider $T:[0,1]\rightarrow [0,1]$ be a continuous map. Let $\mu, \nu$ be $T$ invariant probability measures on $\mathcal{B}([0,1])$. I want to show that if there exists $D>0$ s.t. $\int_{[0,1]} f~d\nu\leq C\int_{[0,1]} f~d\mu$ for all $f:[0,1]\rightarrow \Bbb{R_+}$ continuous then $\nu ...

what is this symbol on left?
so one of the 'teachers' here is also 'teaching' introductory Linear algebra course to first year bachelors students. He's 'teaching' them modules, group theory etc. with little to emphasis on matrices or linear maps etc.
he's 'teaching' introductory functional analysis to us also. he didn't talk about Fredholm theory (available in for example, Kreyszig's) but 'taught' Peter Weyl theory and group representations, Haar measure etc.
@Koro $\otimes$ ?
yeah
isn't it tensor product?
20:49
I mean the meaning of it here. What is it doing?
Also, what is I here?
don't know, I've seen sometimes indicates tensor product but in this case I've no idea
there is 'product of measures' where this symbol is used. But I wonder what measure I is.
@Koro "let us intoduce few notation" but does not specify I :(
that's how his notes usually are- lacking head and tail.
that's sad
20:51
@SineoftheTime exactly.
This is related to Haar measure.
Think of as defining two measures on $G\times G$ …
Showing existence of Haar measure on a compact topological group in an introductory functional analysis course.
That’s not unreasonable.
If you can’t do serious math in grad courses, what the hell.
the course looks like algebra. Haar measure, fine. But group representations, Peter Weyl theory? Why?
I mean do everything in class but the exam should be set from the official syllabus of the course.
Putting questions from these topics (not in syllabus) in exam is nonsense.
@TedShifrin haven't you wrote a comment to my question?
20:55
there are other subjects too and only 24 hrs in a day.
@user1294729 I commented on a comment that was removed. He suggested looking at the characteristic function of, say, an interval. It’s not continuous, but it can be approximated by continuous functions. Try playing with that.
I hadn't studied functional analysis before. I'm a beginner. I expect studying compact operators, open mapping theorem, Hahn Banach theorem, Uniform boundedness etc. But group representations, Peter Weyl theory, Measure theory intrusion whenever he can. Why?
He is offering a course next sem to us. Guess what no one is taking that.
I wonder what advanced functional analysis course would be like.
If introductory fa has Peter Weyl theory but no Fredholm theory in it.
@TedShifrin okey but is this true what I did or is it compleatly useless?
Well, you’re the expert, as usual.
Are you talking with me? Why I'm the expert?
21:02
No, not you.
ah okey
I'm no expert. I'm confused.
I have too many 'why's with no answer.
I missed that you were already doing the char function idea. But that is not continuous. I would start with showing it works for intervals and then play set games. Why does it work for intervals?
I'm a bit confused what I can now assume and what I need to show I mean if I take an intervall $[a,b]$ I need to take the characteristic function of the intrval, otherwise I cannot assume the assumption.
22:00
chaos
Everywhere
22:18
Do you come back to covering the cubical norm in the video lectures?
22:48
No. I spent only half a lecture talking about the proof, if I recall.
Haven't watched that vid yet. That's the next one to watch
GUess I will encounter it eventually in my travails
23:10
or your trabajos
or your muehen
is there such a thing as having an intuition about the behaviour of a 10-dimensional manifold
23:32
In the proof showing (i iff ii), are we implicitly defining like a new category whose objects are sets (morphisms from $C$) and whose morphisms are all isomorphisms of $C$?
then we are showing that the isomorphisms of $C$ are still isomorphisms in our new category. in particular, isomorphsims between sets and so bijections? (it is assumed that the original category is locally small)
23:48
I'm not sure you're envisioning this quite correctly, but something similar is true. Look up the Yoneda embedding.

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