@shintuku I know how to relate arithmetics modulo $n$ and modulo $m \gt 2(n-1)$. With a polynomial!
What you get is a polynomial $f \in \Bbb{Z}[X]$ such that $f(x + y) = f(x) +_n f(y) \pmod m$ for all $x, y \in \{0, \dots, n-1\}$.
So it's as if the structure $(\Bbb{Z}/n ,+)$ sits as a polynomial image inside of the abelian group $(\Bbb{Z}/m, +)$. For divisorially unrelated $m,n$ that is usually unheard of to relate them!
Define:
$$
g(z) = (z(z - 1)(z-2) \cdots (z-n + 1))^{\varphi(m)-1} \equiv \begin{cases} 0 \text{ if } 0\leq z \leq n \\ 1 \text{ otherwise}\end{cases} \pmod m
$$
We can use $g(z)$ to define polynomially instead of piece-wise the following map:
$$
f(z) := \begin{cases}
z \text{ if } g(z) = 0 \\
z ...
Let $G$ be a group and $X$ be a $G$-set. If $F$ is a forgetful functor from the category of $G$-set to the category of set, then we can define a bijection $(\eta^g)_X = \varphi_X(g):F(X)\to F(X)$ where $\varphi_X:G\to S_X$ is a permutation representation of $X$. If $\alpha:F\to F$ is a natural isomorphism, then I'm trying to show $\alpha = \eta^g$ for some $g$.
So I need to find some suitable $g$. If $X = G$, considering $G$ as a $G$-set with left-multiplication, then $\alpha_G:F(G)\to F(G)$ so $\alpha_G(1) = g$. Now I'm hoping $\eta^g = \alpha$.
Is this correct? I can't proceed from here. Naturality of $\alpha$ can be used to show that $\alpha_X:F(X)\to F(X)$ is a $G$-equivariant map I think but don't know what to do next.
I've been doing some more exercises in Hatcher, in particular the following:
Show that $H_0(X,A) = 0$ iff $A$ meets each path-component of $X$.
"$\Leftarrow$": Let $x_i \in A \cap X_i \neq \emptyset \forall $ path-components $X_i$. Then for any $x \in X_i$ there is a path $\gamma$ from $x_i$ to...
We have a long exact sequence
$...\to H_0(A)\to H_0(X)\to H_0(X,A)\to 0$
If $H_0(X,A)=0$, then by exactness at $H_0(X)$: Image $(H_0(A)\to H_0(X))=H_0(X)=$ ker $(H_0(X)\to H_0(X,A))$ so the map $i_*:H_0(A)\to H_0(X)$ is surjective.
Let $X_a$ be a path component of $X$. Suppose on the contrary tha...
koro, given the relation between your question and the earlier one, it might make sense to link to the previous question in your post (maybe with commentary about what you don't understand about the earlier answer, or how your question is different). if only to avoid having someone respond by referring you there or marking it as a duplicate.
no, I said that it is a path in X. It does not have to start at $x_a$ and end at $\alpha$. If there were such a path, then I understand how we get the contradiction.
If A is a bounded subset of ℝ and c ∈ ℝ, And B = {x : ∃y ∈ A (x = c.y)}, Then if c > 0, then sup(B) = c.sup(A) and inf(B) = c.inf(A) And if c < 0, then sup(B) = c.inf(A) and inf(B) = c.sup(A) And if c = 0, then sup(B) = inf(B) = 0 Is this correct?
I remember seeing a animated topology series by a channel by the name Bourbaki[?] which showed stuff like simplex, open balls etc. But I can't find it anywhere.
books vary in how they define 'analyticity' (often in terms of series representations but not always). also in how they define 'differentiable' (often just the existence of the derivative, but sometimes, on an open set and not a point, and sometimes also at least initially required to be continuous on that open set)
but putting aside the static around which definitions you pick, yes. if a function is infinitely complex differentiable on an open set it will be analytic on that set.
and as a lot of textbooks approach it, they usually prove something from a weaker hypothesis, e.g. that f be twice differentiable or at least C^1.
they often assume enough derivatives at the outset so that the ingredients of the cauchy riemann equations will exist without a lot of leg work.
yeah, who knows. all of this stuff, "differentiable," "holomorphic," "analytic" - is not really a good fit for internet discussion, unless it's the kind of discussion where everybody states what definitions they are using at the outset.
you can't explain how or whether "holomorphic" is any different from "analytic" without that context, for example. and if people are just meeting this stuff by working off of wikipedia and other aggregations of various sources, i'm not sure that any of these differences would be clear to them.
if you're dealing with both real and complex stuff at the same time, you might use different definitions than you would if you were only doing intro complex analysis.
He didn't make any distinction. For him differentiable in an open set is the definition of Holomorphic or analytic in that set. He didn't name the functions representable by power series.
we ran into this a little bit a while ago, someone was asking a question relating to harmonic functions. and some books deduce facts about harmonic functions from analogous facts about analytic functions, and other books do it the other way around.
I'm a stupid. I have 4 complex analysis books. Ahlfors, Sarason, Kumaresan, Rudin.
I have also studied complex analysis from Churchill in BSc, from Conway in MSc
Suppose $f$ has a power series expansion in an open set $U$ means that for every $a\in U$, there exists an open ball centered at $a$ s.t. in that ball $f(z)=\sum c_n (z-a)^n$.
Now suppose there exists a point $a_0\in U$ such that $f(z)=\sum c_n (z-a_0)^n$ for every $z\in U$ then does that mean $f$ has a power series expansion in $U$?
I do not really understand 1) the last line of the proof. Isn't this saying that $\epsilon = 0$? I assume that we are trying to prove equality by showing geq and leq.
2) Why do we need to do this geq leq proof when it seems like the argument starting at "Fix $\epsilon > 0$" is sufficient? Since the final inequality tells us that $diam\bar{E} - diamE \leq 2\epsilon$ where $\epsilon$ is arbitrary positive real. which implies that the LHS of the inequality must be equal to 0
Let $\alpha$ be a cut and $r\in\Bbb Q^+.$ Then $\exists p\in \alpha$ and $q\in\alpha ^c$ such that $q$ is not the least element of $\alpha^c$ and $r=q-p.$ (The definition of cut is attached at the end of this post for reference)
The solution presented is as follows:
Let $s\in \alpha$ be any elem...
@SillyGoose In the second line of the proof, we already have $\text{diam}E\leq\text{diam}\overline{E}$. Next as I said, we get the other way inequality. So they are same.
@SillyGoose But no this doesn't prove that a=b.
@SillyGoose are you talking about $a<b+c$ for all $c>0$ implies $a=b$?
@Koro It's not that complicated. If you have a map of sets $f\colon S\rightarrow T$, it induces a map of free abelian groups $\bigoplus_{s\in S}\mathbb{Z}e_s\rightarrow\bigoplus_{t\in T}\mathbb{Z}e_t$ uniquely defined by mapping $e_s\mapsto e_{f(s)}$. The image of this map is then precisely the free abelian subgroup of $\bigoplus_{t\in T}\mathbb{Z}e_t$ consisting of those summands where $t\in f(S)$. From this, deduce that the cokernel of this map is a free abelian group with basis $T\setminus f(S)$. In particular, the map between the free abelian groups is surjective iff $f$ is surjective. …
@Thorgott I know that the map $H_0(A)\to H_0(X)$ is surjective (assuming $H_0(X,A)=0$). But I don't see how to conclude A intersects all path components of X from here.
You've said as much before, but you're not carefully reading what I'm saying. What are the bases of $H_0(A)$ and $H_0(X)$ as free abelian groups? What is the map $f$ from my message above in this context?
@Koro You'd just be tossing rep. If it is closed, no one can answer. I guess if there were an answer, you could add a bounty and, after it's possible, give the bounty to that answer.
> A bounty can be started on any question 48 hours after the question was asked, provided the question isn't closed, locked, or deleted.
So, no, you can't put a bounty on a closed question.
@Koro I described a specific class of morphisms between free abelian groups with fixed bases in my first messages. I'm saying the map $H_0(A)\rightarrow H_0(X)$ can be described as such. Be specific about which parts are not clear to you.
Okay, I got it. From theorem 10.13 of rudin, my conditions imply that integration is zero over all triangles and then by Morrera's theorem $f$ is holomorphic.
I'm reading through the article about countable sets on Wikipedia. They say a set is countable if there exists an injective function from the set into the natural numbers. However, doesn't one require a bijective function for it to be called countable?
interesting though, because if the samples do affect the distribution, you may learn about the affect of your sampling on the distribution but if it's not reversable you can't learn about the original distribution
I was using the term accumulate in the sense of real smooth surfaces i.e. when a surface accumulates to a point it's in someway converging from all directions to that point
but I can use accumulate in the complex setting as well I thought
I'm trying to determine for which $x$ the series $\sum_{k=0}^\infty (1+x^2)^{-k}$ converges and what it converges to. I have been unsuccessful so far with the ratio test...
It leads me to $\frac{(1+x^2)^{-(k+1)}}{(1+x^2)^{-k}}=\frac{1}{1+x^2}$. Now, the ratio test says the series converges if $\frac{1}{1+x^2}< 1$, or equivalently, $0<x^2$. So I guess it is saying $x\neq 0$??
Cos(x)= y then how am I supposed to reverse it at find x?!
I mean google is not helping me at all! I did look up. and the last time I was studying these was like 10 years ago. long time for remembering anything!
Numerical methods for approximating Pythagoras' constant $t =\sqrt 2$ by fractions.
(This is an idea from my mentor while he was barely $13$ yo, as a response to a challenge).
We all know Newton's method for finding $t$.
It converges quadratically meaning like $o( C x^{2^n} )$ where $C$ is a cons...