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21:07
A straight line passing through P (3, 1) meets the
coordinate axes at A and B. It is given that the
distance of this straight line from the origin O is
maximum. The area of triangle OAB is equal to... Can anybody help me with question..one way could be calculate the length of perpendicular from orgin and maximise it..but that would be quite lengthy...is there any other way
@KumarShuvam have you tried asking on the main site?
@ペガサスSeiya Umm! I can do that
But I thought it would be good to discuss here
@KumarShuvam if you do ask there, I suggest including what you tried so far within the question. Every detail helps
Umm! Okay
Can I include a image here?
@KumarShuvam sure, send the imgur link
21:16
@KumarShuvam the key word is "maximum". what can you conclude?
@SineoftheTime well my mind says...calculate the derivative maximise that's it lol
@KumarShuvam sounds good
@SineoftheTime is there any other way?
21:31
@KumarShuvam probably, I think you can show somehow that the line must be perpendicular to OP, but I've not done this geometry problems for years
@KumarShuvam yeah. Shown that line passing through O and P is perpendicular to line passing through A and B
@ペガサスSeiya how?
@KumarShuvam when are two lines on a plane perpendicular?
@ペガサスSeiya when the product of their slopes is -1 assuming none of the two lines are vertical...
@KumarShuvam correct. Then, if OP is perpendicular to AB where O is the origin and P(3,1), what does that tell you about AB?
21:39
That slope of AB is "-3"?
@KumarShuvam exactly. Now you can easily find the equation for AB
Anyhow, @Sine, with $p=[1,0,0,0]$ and the $\Bbb P^2$ given by $x_0=0$, you should find that the retraction $\Bbb P^3 - \{p\}\to\Bbb P^2$ is given by $r([z_0,z_1,z_2,z_3]) = [0,z_1,z_2,z_3]$. Now the homotopy to the identity map should be clear.
@TedShifrin yes, thank you. I've understood the key idea and built the homotopy
22:04
@TedShifrin now I'm doing this problem: let $B=\{\emptyset,[a,b]\}$ with $a\le b \in \Bbb{R}$ a base for the topology, and let $X=(\Bbb{R},U_B)$. show that $\pi_1(X,0)=1$. My idea is to show that the identity map is homotopy equivalent to the constant map
Is there a faster way?
22:17
for $y' y = -x$ given $y(0) = r$ I did $\frac{y^2}{2} = -\frac{x^2}{2} + C$ as the implicit solution, how do you get $x^2 + y(x)^2 = r^2$ using the initial value
$y(0) = r$ means $y = \sqrt{-x^2 + 2C} = r$
@Obliv what you did rearranges to $x^2+y^2=2C$, so if you can take $2C=r^2$ you're done
also, that's not what $y(0)=r$ means. you need to actually plug in $x=0$
oh derp
$y(0) = \sqrt{2C} = r$
and $C = r^2 / 2$ then you just multiple by 2 on both sides to get $x^2 + y^2 = r^2$
22:31
@SineoftheTime I don’t understand the topology.
@TedShifrin open sets are $[a,b]$ with $a\leq b$
No, that’s not right.
If those sets are open, then so is every open interval, too.
@TedShifrin the base of the topology is formed by these intervals, but obviously also the countable union is open
@TedShifrin yes, I've proved that it's a base for a topology on $\Bbb{R}$
So actually what is the topology?
I think every subset of $\Bbb{R}$ is open
22:35
That'd be the discrete topology
Yes, the discrete topology.
@Rithaniel yes
So what are the continuous maps to it?
to show that $\pi_1(X,0)$ is trivial, I considered: $id_X$ (identity map) and $c_y$ (costant map) and then build a homotopy between them
and checked that the function is continuous
Specifically, I defined: $F:X\times I\to X$ with $F(x,t)=x $ if $0\leq t <1$ and $F(x,t)=y$ if $t=1$
Forget the question and answer mine.
22:40
@TedShifrin I think every well-defined map is continuous
Really? I’ll be back in a while.
for $y' = \frac{1+2x}{y^2 + y^2x^2} \to y'y^2(1+x^2) = 1+2x \to y^2 dy = \frac{1+2x}{1+x^2}dx$ is integration by parts the way to go or can I do a u-sub
actually u sub should work
actually no
@Obliv just split the fraction
that makes more sense lol
how would you classify $y' = x^2y - y + x^2 - 1$? it doesn't seem to be in the linear form
$\frac{dy}{dx} - x^2(y + 1) + y - 1 = 0$
you can separate variables
22:49
I don't think so
nvm
$y'=x^2y-y+x^2-1$ is equal to $y'=(x^2-1)(y+1)$
Oh I was gonna say $\frac{dy}{dx} = x^2(y + 1) - y - 1 \to \frac{dy}{dx} + y + 1 = x^2(y+1)$ then yeah
@Ted I finally understood the whole geometric explanation of Nakayama's lemma being an inverse function theorem just now
in proving that two curves intersect with multiplicity 1 iff they are smooth at the point and the intersection is transverse
@Thorgott thank you for your help before :)
glad you got it
22:56
I'd like to examine in depth projective geometry, hope that will be such course next year
What is a pre-order that is not reflexive nor irreflexive? so just transitive and total. What is called?
23:17
@SineoftheTime You have a revised answer for me now?
@Thorgott I never saw that.
@TedShifrin in order to be continuous, the preimage of an open set must be open
Molecular geometry is weird
and every subset is open
In the codomain, not in the domain
For example, if the domain is a circle.
oh I thought you were referring to functions from the space to itself
@TedShifrin it's to be open for the induced topology
23:22
And closed?
same for open sets but you consider a close set instead
So, if $X$ is connected, what are the continuous maps from $X$ to your discrete space?
must be a constant map, since the image of a connected space is connected
the Nakayama lemma says that if $(R,\mathfrak{m})$ is a local ring and the residue classes of $f_1,\dots,f_n\in\mathfrak{m}$ generate the cotangent space $\mathfrak{m}/\mathfrak{m}^2$ as $k=R/\mathfrak{m}$-vector space, then $f_1,\dotsc,f_n$ generate $\mathfrak{m}$ as $R$-module.
in the concrete example, say $R=\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{A}^2,0}$. this is the local ring of stalks of regular functions near the origin of the affine plane. its maximal ideal consists of those stalks vanishing at $0$ and its cotangent space consists precisely of the differentials of stalks of regular functions at the
@SineoftheTime Right. Now answer your question.
23:31
@TedShifrin every continuous function $f:I\to X$ must be constant for the aforementioned reasoning
@Thorgott I see. Infinitesimal normal crossings implies normal crossings.
@Sine So what about $\pi_1$?
yeah, locally
It must be trivial because all paths are equivalent to the constant path
don't know if path is the appropriate word
Not true, is it?
@Thorgott well, globally if true for every intersection.
Interesting that Artin, who taught me commutative algebra, never taught me your observation. I would never have forgotten.
@TedShifrin we have only the constant map no?
23:37
Why only one constant map?
in the case $\pi_1(X,0)$ or in general?
In our case.
if $f:I\to X$, we have $f(0)=f(1)=0$
OK, so we have only one map because of the basepoint. So no homotopy discussion at all.
@TedShifrin yes, this is definitely faster
Thank you again :)
23:43
Sure :)
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