If $f''(a) = f''(x_0) = f''(b) = 0$ where $a < x_0 < b$ and $f'''(x_0) > 0$, then $f$ is concave down for $(a, x_0)$ and concave up for $(x_0, b)$.
If $f''(a) = f''(x_0) = f''(b) = 0$ where $a < x_0 < b$ and $f'''(x_0) < 0$, then $f$ is concave up for $(a, x_0)$ and concave down for $(x_0, b)$.
These always hold, right?