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00:44
@TedShifrin the question has some close votes as well and it may get closed for lack of context. Some users (myself excluded) also down vote answers to such questions. That maybe the case here.
@robjohn let's also get that by a set theorist (Asaf) : math.stackexchange.com/a/3731233/72031 (this includes my comment as well)
01:12
I refuse to be so pedantic as to insist that the rationals aren’t a subset of the reals and the reals aren’t a subset of the complexes. Sue me.
the next thing ted will try to tell us is that an integer isn't an equivalence class of pairs of natural numbers, or that the natural numbers don't include 0.
i think i agree with you, ted. i'm not sure i would call the set theoretic distinctions 'pedantic,' as much as i would say, there is no reason to presume that everything mathematical "really" starts with some kind of set theory that we either choose to ignore (by identifying different sets or choosing particular embeddings) or not. many mathematical conversations just don't start with, or even involve, set theory.
lawvere theory, on the other hand...
01:28
Am I going nuts? If $A$ is a PID then $A[x]$ is a PID? I thought the integers provided a counterexample
@leslietownes Lawvere & Surely was a great sitcom.
@Derivative UFD, not PID
@Derivative I think that works for UFDs and not PID's
my professor thinks otherwise
he misspoke
Your book did not.
01:34
he put this on the test and marked it wrong
god damn
and I emailed him about it and he's insisting on it
Then give him the counterexample, with proof.
this is gonna go over well
I'm going to try anyway
This is in (pretty much) every text.
Be polite.
If a student showed me I’d made an error, I was usually very grateful (and usually impressed).
@Koro: Every vector space $V$ over a field $F$ has a Hamel basis, that is, there is a set $B\subset V$ such that $B$ is linearly independent (any finite linear combination $a_1v_1+\ldots + a_Nv_n=0$ with $a_j\in F$ and $v_j\in B$ yields $a_j=0$ for all $1\leq j\leq N$) and for any $x\in V$, there is a finite set $\beta_1,\ldots, \beta_N\in F$ and $u_1,\ldots,u_N\in V$ such that $x=\beta_1u_1+\ldots +\beta_N u_N$.
that has been my experience with my professors as well
but this guy...
01:37
This was a T/F question?
yes
he's sort of nuts. This is the first class he's teaching, and he's going to fail most of the class
@Koro: All this depends on the Axiom of Choice (or equivalences of it, for example Zorn's lemma).
there are 21 students enrolled and only 12 showed up for the final
Never taught before?! Unusual to start at this level.
he was a TA before at most
01:38
If he continues to insist, you might go see the department head.
He’s a postdoc?
no, postdocs don't teach in my country
What’s his field?
in my university*
he's an algebraist!! He has publications on algebraic number theory!
shocking right
well I sort of don't want to cause trouble, because I'm gonna need to ask the department head a lot of other things in the future
Oh, this is ridiculous. Are you sure you’re telling us the complete question?
@PM2Ring :D :D :D
01:41
"Se A é domínio de ideais principais, então A[T] é domínio de ideais principais." T/F?
you get the pciture
@Koro: This posting may be of interest to you
Crazy. Be polite but persistent (with proof).
that's really something else. i had a near-incompetent postdoc as an undergrad, but they weren't wrong-bad, just, bad-bad.
I'm going to take classes in another university and I'm gonna have to ask the department to approve that the classes count towards my degree
so I didn't want to be the person to do this
Don’t be scared to be right. Just be polite.
The department head should not be happy that less than half the class showed up to the final.
BTW, this was my job (associate head) for 8 years. Ask for approval before, not after, you take the class.
01:45
For rather large values of half. ;) 12/21 turned up.
no, no the process is different here
you can consult before, but the final decision is only made after taking the class
different country
I understand, but do consult.
thanks though
01:47
Can you prove $\Bbb Z[T]$ is not a PID?
02:23
do we get interesting qualitative differences in cyclic groups as we consider higher and higher orders of them?
shin: the cycles get longer
which, of course, means the group tends to be healthier
Not really.
02:47
I heard there's a party in here, how are you guys doing?
03:36
Heya, Demonark.
 
3 hours later…
06:46
@TedShifrin I am not so pedantic, either; for the most part, I consider $\mathbb{Q}\subset\mathbb{R}$ and $\mathbb{R}\subset\mathbb{C}$. However, I don't deny that there is a place for such pedantry, and so I brought up that $x\mapsto x^2$ on $\mathbb{R}$ might not be considered the same as $x\mapsto x^2+0i$ in every sense.
@robjohn I think that, unless in the context of ZFC or set-theoretic constructions, one does not distinguish them. Subset really means a chosen embedding in normal math.
It is an arbitrary isomorphic thing, but a chosen thing.
As I said, I am not so pedantic, and to keep from going mad, I consider $\mathbb{R}\subset\mathbb{C}$.
we often mod by isomorphisms
Complex numbers have a nontrivial Galois group over rational numbers.
We only fix an embedding from R to C.
07:01
$i$ is a solution to $z^2+1=0$, but which one?
Sometimes there are real mathematical consequences. If I remember correctly, Serre has an example of an algebraic variety X over a number field K such that the topological space of its analytification varies when we conjugate K in C.
uh oh, now i don't know how i'll sleep at night.
Maybe the homotopy type also varies.
maybe we should go back to saying there aren't any solutions
 
3 hours later…
10:36
Can anyone give me a hint? $\sum\limits_{n=2}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n^{\alpha}-1}$ converges just as like as $\sum\limits_{n=2}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n^{\alpha}}$ ?
2
Q: A pen-and-paper proof for a matrix implication.

BAYMAXSuppose $A = \begin{bmatrix} x & 1\\ y & 0\end{bmatrix}, B = \begin{bmatrix} z & 1\\ w & 0\end{bmatrix}$, for $x,y,z,w \in \Bbb{R}$. I have observed by considering many examples of $x,y,z,w$ that: If all the eigen values of $A^2B$ and $AB^2$ are less than one in absolute value $\implies$ $\det(A...

If you have any ideas!
11:13
@robjohn how I see it is that rationals, real numbers, all of those further constructions are as follows
after already having constructed the rationals, we forget about the original natural numbers, and instead use the copy of them
or you could always redefine complex numbers so that $\mathbb{R}$ is a subset of $\mathbb{C}$ in the literal way
then there's no problems in its definition
 
2 hours later…
13:34
1
Q: How do I prove that this map on the quotient space is well defined?

cristallo Let $K$ be a field and $X\subset K^n$. Then define $$\mathcal{O}(X):=K[X_1,...,X_n]\big/I(X)$$ where $I(X):=\{f\in K[X_1,...,X_n]: f(x)=0~~\forall x\in X\}$. I need to show that $$\phi:\mathcal{O}(X)\rightarrow Map(X,K); ~~~~~\bar f\mapsto \left(\phi(\bar f):x\mapsto f(x)\right)$$ is well define...

can someone help me here?
13:50
Why is slope of the sphere $x^2+y^2+z^2=1$ at the point (2/3, 1/3, 2/3) equal to $\frac{\partial y}{\partial z}$
when i visualise the partial differentiation of z wrt y, i am picturing a line thats parallel to yz plane.... hows that the tangent of the line?
oh wait that part is mentioned somewhere else in my textbook, brb
14:19
Hello, does anyone know how to reduce the power in the differential equation $y''=xyy'$?
 
1 hour later…
15:26
I have a basic embarrassing question. Take this equality...
the left part seems to be the product of two terms. The first is a function of x and y and the second is a function of t and x
but the righthand part is a functjon of x and y only
what simple thing am I missing?
It is not a product. It’s stupid engineering notation for iterated (double) integrals.
@TedShifrin oh!!
I would never have guessed that
@TedShifrin how did you know this?
15:51
There's something particularly nice I realized about differentiation of the exponential functions. Tell me something: how do most people learn (in public school) what the derivative of the circular functions are? I assume if anything it's just rote memorization as usual and they just give a formula. Is that correct?
yeah, the implicit function formula
ah nvm, you said circular function, as in the trig ones?
Yep
it consists in learning soh cah toa and how to compute trig functions with the calculator
and their derivatives are just given
Cringe
sometimes they make nice little pictures for the intuition of their derivatives
i was shown that traveling slope .gif for the intuition of the derivative
15:56
I guess using the definition of the derivative and $\lim_{x\to0} \sin x/x=1$ limit (?)
Well, there's an equally nice and intuitive algebraic understanding of the derivatives of sine and cosine: $$\frac{d^n}{dt^n} \cos(t) = \Re(\frac{d^n}{dt^n} e^{it})$$ and of course sine has it's analog in there.
Where $i=\sqrt{-1}$
Bruh, just show them this. It hits like a train once you realize it.
(oh and $t\in\Bbb{R}$)
Anyways, just thought I'd mention it. It came to me like a week ago or so.
cool stuff!
:D
Also, if complex-valued functions are "4D", then why not just provide a representation as an animation with three dimensions and one dimension of time? Make a gif :P
Nevertheless I think just showing the two planes for the domain and codomain is simpler and more intuitive. It's translating points on the complex plane, not necessarily building a 4D structure per se even if it can be reified as that.
I mean, technically you can just present real-valued functions the same way as one plane showing the set of points $(x, 0)$ and the other showing $(0, y)$ or $(x, y)$. The way I see it, when not isolating domain or codomain, the image of the relation is a distinct shape unique to that relation.
 
1 hour later…
17:24
math.stackexchange.com/a/2278507/270202 : "the singularities at $\cos z = 0$ are removable..." why?
18:16
@JoeShmo Since $|f(z)|\le M|\cos(z)|$, $\left|\frac{f(z)}{\cos(z)}\right|\le M$. If $f(z)$ is bounded in a neighborhood of $z_0$, then any singularity at $z_0$ is removable.
Because $f$ must vanish there too. Or read the comments. It’s officially the Riemann extension thm.
Hi @robjohn. Happy holidays!
@robjohn oh I see. Just because..
Anyone enjoying holidays? I'm not
@TedShifrin To you, too! It will be 82° here on Sunday
While our friends eastward freeze badly!
18:18
It's COLD
Happy holidays to all!
holidays, i.e., unlimited math time
@JoeShmo No, that is part of Riemann's Theorem: if $f$ is holomorphic away from $z_0$ and bounded in a neighborhood of $z_0$, then any singularity at $z_0$ is removable.
ah, I guess what I'm saying is (and to paraphrase Ted) that if $f$ didn't vanish at $z_n = (2n+1) \pi$, then the quotient $\frac {f(z_n)} {\cos z_n}$ cannot be bounded (in modulus)
It is true that when an analytic function vanishes, it vanishes to order $1$, but that is also something that needs to be proven
It can vanish to order $\ge 1$ as far as I'm concerned, but I need order at least $1$. Am I doing something stupid?
meaning, can I get away without Riemann extension theorem here?
also, while I have you, there's the following claim here: $\frac 1 3 < |\cos z| < \frac 5 3$ on $|z| = 1$. The upper bound I have from the Taylor expansion of $\cos z$ (achieved at $\pm i$). How to get the lower bound?
18:32
You’re going to reprove it. One line proof.
I'm going to reprove what?
Why not the lower from Taylor?
one sec ^
also, reprove what? the upper bound? there's a better proof?
@Simd It's standard engineering/physics notation. I do not like it, but they use it. I write $\int_a^b \int_{f(x)}^{g(x)} h(x,y)\,dy\,dx$.
Hello and happy holidays. If someone has some time to spare I would like to have some feedback on a proof of mine ( math.stackexchange.com/q/4604900 ). Thanks
18:40
no, reprove Riemann extension.
👍
18:52
OK, yeah, I can get this wolframalpha.com/… as the lower bound from Taylor, but I wouldn't know that it's $> \frac 1 3$ without wolfram
I mean I could probably go from there by induction, but that leaves a lot to be desired
I don't know if this is true but...
there's gotta be a complex trig identity here that does the job (evident by the $\cos,\ \cosh$ dance on wolfram)
This cat belongs to Schrodinger, Feynman. A physicist's favorite animal. Indeed, a proof is simultaneously true and false, until the cat calls it one way or the other.
The things you do to this animal in the name of science, of course.. are repulsive.
@TedShifrin I agree with you about the latter being a better notation, although I should mention I've only used the notation proposed by OP in Real Analysis only and the one you proposed in Physics sometimes
A notation we use more frequently in physics is $\int_a^b dx\int_{\alpha(x)}^{\beta(x)}dy f(x,y)$
@JoeShmo Schrödinger hated cats unfortunately (seriously)
19:00
I'd never have guessed.
I myself am a dog person.
And so was E. Schrödinger :P
Here something about it
19:17
^not by induction, but I'm getting the bound I need, via left methods (and "preknowing" that $\cos 1 \approx 0.54 < 0.55$)
20:12
yikes
In fact, I don't know how to construct natural numbers.
@Yai0Phah $n = \{ n-1 , \cdots, 1, 0 \}$
where 0 is the empty set
have fun
What axiom are you using?
Look into the Peano axioms
I am not talking about Peano axioms. I am talking about constructing natural numbers in set theory.
20:17
yeah they're usually constructed with peano axioms
No, Peano axioms are an axiomatization of natural numbers.
whoops maybe, in any case, @Yai0Phah the construction i'm using is $x^+ = x \cup \{ x \}$, where $x^+$ is the natural number after $x$ and $0$ is given by the empty set
it's the construction that starts at page 38 of Goldrei's Classic Set Theory
OK, that is precisely axiom of infinity.
I have never learned set theory.
To see that the induction axiom holds for this construction, do we also need the axiom of replacement?
20:39
@JoeShmo Review what you know about alternating series. Doesn't that do it?
well that's how I prove it essentially
you end up with $|\cos z |\ge 1 - \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac 1 {(2n+2)!}$, the latter term you could write as $\cos 1 - \epsilon$, $\epsilon < \cos 1$ here
It's something most calculus students learn. If you have $\sum (-1)^n a_n$ with $a_n>0$ and decreasing, then the error between a partial sum $\sum_{n=1}^k a_n$ and the series is simply $a_{k+1}$.
You get a bounding interval by going back to the preceding negative term.
lost you. where do you apply this ^^ fact?
For example, if you have $a=1-1/3+1/5-1/7+1/9 - \dots$, then $2/3 < a < 2/3+1/5$.
oh..
dur
20:52
I didn't pay attention to your particulars, but I assume that's all that's going on.
yeah..
it's not really that the error term of the partial sums is $a_{k+1}$ though
I have a small confusion in the following statement:X and Y are topological p: X-->Y is a quotient map is equivalent to the fact that p is continuous and maps saturated open sets to open sets.
it's just true that $a > 1 - \frac 1 3 = \frac 2 3$
Is the statement true?
since the rest of the terms are positive
20:54
I think that we must add surjectivity of p as well.
@JoeShmo I thought you had the cos Taylor series. What do you mean, the rest of the terms are positive?
in your example
My example was meant to be permanently alternating!
$a = (1 - 1/3) + (1/5 - 1/7) + \ldots$
Notice the $-$ before the $\dots$.
20:57
yeah I know
Oh, yeah, you can look at it that way. Or you can think about the even partial sums increasing and the odd partial sums decreasing (or vice versa)>
yeah no, but my logic doesn't work in the complex case though
which is probably the trouble I ran into
does yours (?) For $|\cos z| = |1 - z^2/2 + z^4/4! - z^6/6! + \ldots$| the above reasoning (at least what I said) doesn't help me
I'm lying. it does help me, eventually.
21:21
I was doing it with $|z|$ inserted.
So then you need to use triangle inequality (both usual and reverse).
yeah
I'm not quite doing it like you suggest, but same same
basically, just to put this to rest:
$$|\cos z| = |1 - \frac {z^2}{2!} + \frac {z^4}{4!} - \frac {z^6}{6!} + \frac {z^8}{8!} - \ldots| =\\
|1 - |\frac {z^2} {2!}|\cdot|1 - \frac {z^2} {4 \cdot 3}| - |\frac {z^6} {6!}|\cdot|1 - \frac {z^2} {8 \cdot 7}| - \ldots| \ge\\
|1 - \frac{1}{2!} - \frac{1}{6!} - \frac{1}{10!} - \ldots| \ge\\
1 - \frac 1 2 - \frac 1 6 > \frac 1 3$$
no thats not true.... ^ whatever, I'll get back to it
Wow. This is definitely more complicated than I was thinking. Let me ponder with pencil.
I'm getting it to work with the $\cos 1$ business
but nothing straight forward
Is their particular lower bound, as opposed to say, $1/2$, which is easy as I was describing earlier, actually important?
1/3
no its meant as a prequel to the following Rouche question
wolfram says that it's just under 1/2
1/3 is actually a very loose bound
basically the third line up there can be written as $1 - \cos 1 + \text{extra}$, and that's as good as I'm able to get it for now
21:35
So, upper bounds are trivial with just inserting $|z|=1$ and using triangle inequality. The lower bound is a bit more subtle.
Here's what I'm thinking. Write $|\cos z| = |1-A| \ge 1-|A|$, where $A=z^2/2-z^4/4!+z^6/6! - \dots$.
yeah but now the triangle inequality isn't working in your favor
Now we want the largest $|A|$ can be, so that will just be $1/2 + 1/4! + 1/6! + \dots$ for a definite bound.
Yes, it is.
Unless I'm being stooopid.
So that sum is just $\cosh 1 - 1$, which is a bit bigger than $1/2$.
that's what I have more or less though
21:40
So $1-|A|\ge 2-\cosh 1 \approx .457$. Way better than $1/3$.
i.e., you have to know what $\cos, \cosh$ is at $1$
yeah yeah I have that bound
I think that's allowed, but I still don't know why we care about this.
with cosine, not cosh
It should be with $\cosh$, unless my logic is flawed.
I fanagled it so it looks like cos(1)
21:42
I'm not sure what value of $z$ on the unit circle actually maximizes $|A|$. It's not obvious to me right this second.
yeah, its not as obvious as the upper bound, and I don't love that
I wouldn't know on the quals that cos(1) ~= .55
On a qual no one would ask for that. It's not unreasonable to ask you to get to $2-\cosh 1$ as an upper bound
What I did is just one or two straightforward lines, no trickery.
I agree that $2 - \cosh 1$ is a perfectly valid upper bound
but the question explicitly asks for 1/3
I know -- I had this bound all along (again, with cos, not cosh)
Was this an actual qual question with the 1/3?
21:50
Bad question.
Move on.
fwiw, how it works with $\cos 1$ is for example
$$
|1 - \frac{1}{2!} - \frac{1}{6!} - \frac{1}{10!} - \ldots| =\\
|\cos 1 - (\frac 1 {4!} + \frac {1}{8!} + \ldots)| \ge\\
\cos 1 - \frac 2 {4!} > \frac 1 3
$$
since, say,
$$
|\frac 1 {4!} + \frac {1}{8!} + \ldots| \le\\
\frac 1 {4!} (1 + \frac 1 2 + \frac 1 4 + \ldots) =\\
\frac 1 {4!} \cdot 2
$$
No, your signs aren't right for $\cos 1$.
where
you add and subtract
that's what the second line is
I think it's good (?) everything permutes obviously because the whole thing is absolutely bounded by $e$
22:07
Oh, I see.
anyway, I've been looking for something better than this ^ since the morning, and I'm coming up short. wasted the entire day on this nonsense
Yeah, stop wasting time on it.
People do often write bad qual questions. Things happen. We changed the structure of qual committees at UGA in an effort to minimize that. When the "non-expert" did his/her job (and actually tried to work the exam and made the "experts" change things to make it doable/correct, the system works. Sadly, typically the non-expert is way too lazy to bother (or too ignorant). But when I was the "non-expert" in both real analysis and algebra, I actually did spend the time/effort to improve the exams.
Not that the students excelled for the most part, anyhow.
what was the derivative criteria for the order of poles
I never use/teach that.
Just think about the Laurent series.
you have a pole of order $n$ if $f^{(n)}(z)|_{z=z_0} \ne 0$, for the least such $n$?
22:19
That's clearly nonsense.
k let me write out the laurent series
oh there are a few good questions here
You can deduce the criterion (which has limits in it, not derivatives) from the Laurent series, immediately.
well that I know
the smallest negative index $m$ appearing in the laurent series
is the order of the pole $z_0$, the laurent series being expanded about the pole $z_0$
Right.
ok, are singularities at $\infty$ special?
theyre always isolated or something (why do I care?)
22:24
No, they aren't always isolated!
What about $1/\sin(z)$?
$1/ \sin z$ has a simple pole at $2 n \pi$, no?
$n \in \mathbb{Z}$
evident from the taylor expansion
$n\pi$, yes, but you were asking about $\infty$
yeah, excuse me
let me write it out. at $\infty$ means expand in $1/z$, take $z \to 0$
So it'll look like an essential singularity. But is it?
Turkish Kebab, anyone?
22:32
yeah I have no idea what's happening
Sure, as long as it isn't dried out.
things on the denominator are acting up
Well, if you have a valid Laurent series expanded about $z_0$, then my definition of essential singularity is that there are infinitely many terms with negative exponent. But what does valid mean?
$\sum \dfrac1{n!z^n}$ is an example of such a Laurent series. But what do I mean by valid?
@TedShifrin it is dried out
Aww :(
That's sadly too typical.
22:36
Don't worry you can just put it in some water and then eat like. Like dunking oreos in milk
Yuck.
And I don't like oreos, either.
Ever had a chicken flavored KitKat?
oh, Ted.. $1/6! + 1/10! + \ldots \le 2/6!$ whence the sum up there should be $> 1/2 - 2/6! > 1/3$
no cosines, no nonsense
that's what they wanted probably
OK, and why is $1/10! + 1/16! + \dots$ obviously $<1/6!$?
for the same reason that $1/4! + 1/8! + \ldots < 2/4!$
22:39
Did you tell me that reason?
Anyhow, you changed the subject.
yes, yes. it just hit me like lightning when I wasn't thinking about it
back to our biz: I have no clue what a "valid" laurent series is
It has to converge on an annulus.
ok
and what does the choice of annulus decide?
22:43
Well, is the function we're talking about holomorphic on $0<|z|<r$ for some $r$?
your function should be, yes
What about $1/\sin(1/z)$?
And why should mine be?
for example, $1/\sin(z)$ should be holomorphic on $0 < |z| < \pi$
But we're not looking at that.
But I agree that that is true.
ok
dont know whats going on with $1/\sin(1/z)$
isn't that conformal mapping stuff?
well, ok, $\sin(1/z)$ has an essential singularity at $z=0$
22:56
No, it does not. Because by definition an essential singularity must be isolated.
oh?
meaning, it's (laurent) expansion about $0$ is invalid?
@Yai0Phah I don't understand what you mean by "a relative concept"? The convexity definition is clear.
Right, because there are holes in the annulus accumulating at $0$.
I'm losing you. what holes? Every annulus has a hole
You did not read what I said.
Where is $\sin(1/z)=0$?
23:04
nowhere. only tends to $0$ as $z \to \infty$
Say what?
oh, sorry
at $z=\frac 1 {n \pi}$
Uh huh, which limit to ... ?
Precisely.
23:09
I see
so the answer to your question is no
Whatever the question was, I've forgotten. But probably so. What about the other series?
every annulus $0 < |z| < r$ contains a singularity of $1/\sin(1/z)$
Right. So not isolated singularity.
what is an isolated singularity?
one that's isolated from all the other singularities?
Hasn't your course/text covered all this?
23:11
long, long ago
But, yes, obviously so.
and maybe, who remembers anymore
ok, so all of that gives me what?
there is no valid laurent expansion of $1/\sin(1/z)$?
I was warning you that not every Laurent series with infinitely many negative powers represents an essential singularity.
To talk about a Laurent expansion, the function must be holomorphic on some annulus $r<|z|<R$.
Time to reread some basics.
ok, what do I read?
I am actually disappearing to the kitchen.
Your favorite textbook on complex analysis would be good.
23:14
jeremy orloff doesn't have notes on singularity classifications
@CroCo You don't say that a set $E$ is convex. Rather, you say a subset $E$ of a real affine space $X$ is convex.

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