In my book, they say that the power rule holds for all $r \in \mathbb{R}$, $r \neq 0$ for $f(x) = x^r$. But why can $r$ not be $0$?
Is there any good reason for this besides that some people might interpret $x^0$ as the function $f(x) = 1$ and forget that $0$ is not in the domain? I don't think that's a good reason, otherwise you could say it only holds for positive $r$ because for $1/x$, $0$ wouldnt be in the domain for example