that's a bit vague, if there is a valid (& suitably smooth) one dimensional parameterisation of the constraint space, then minimising the resulting one dimensional function will be equivalent in the appropriate sense.
@copper.hat The mistake students make is that they consider the “substituted” function on the wrong domain. They forget that often the domain has boundary and don’t check boundary points.
Obviously, if you parametrize a circle by $\theta$ you’ll be fine, but they often do $y=\pm\sqrt{1-x^2}$ and miss endpoints (not to mention differentiability issues). But a function like $y^2+x$ will work fine unless you forget that $x\in [-1,1]$.
Let $M_2$ be a closed orientable genus $2$ surface and $\phi:M_2\to M_2$ be a homeomorphism given by rotation of angle $\pi$ by the $x$-axis. Calculate $\phi_*:H_i(M_2,\Bbb Z)\to H_i(M_2,\Bbb Z)$ for $i =0,1,2$ with respect to a basis of $H_i(M_2,\Bbb Z)$ for each $i$. (Hint: use $\phi$-invarian...
@TedShifrin I'm not ordering. I usually interpret it as a sign to delete. If someone wants me to revise the post, that person usually leaves a comment.
I draw everything one by one (the rotation process) and the CW structure does not change at all (obviously..?). Does that imply the induced homomorphism on homology is an identity map?
In a T1 space, why is limit point compactness equivalent to countable compactness?
Suppose that X is countably compact. Let A be an infinite subset of X. Choose a countable subset {a_i} out of A. {X-a_i} is an open cover of X so there exist finitely many indices 1,2,...,k such that X-a_i cover X.
Atleast one of X-a_i, 1<=i<=k contains infinitely many elements of a_n.
Let the index be k WLOG and call the elements of a_n as $a_{n_k}$'s. Claim: a_k is a limit point of $ a_{n_k}$
Let U be an open set containing a_k. U has to be of the form X-F, where F is finite set that doesn't contain a_k. Clearly X-F contains some $a_{n_k} $.
QED.
But I have a doubt here: is it true that in a T_1 space, every open set has to be of the form X- F, where F is finite set? In T_1, finite sets are closed.
For the other direction: Let U_i be an open cover of X. Assume on the contrary that there is no finite subcover. Choose x_k in X- $ \cup_{i\le k} U_i$.
Let x be the limit point of {x_n}. x is some U_m. U_m doesn't contain u_i with i>m-1.
Let $\{x_1,...,x_{m-1}\}\cap U_m = $ non empty. But I don't see how to get any contradiction from here. It seems that limit point compactness is NOT equivalent to countable compactness in T_1.
@LukasHeger oh yes, thanks. Not true even in R, take N, the set of naturals for example.
Using the above CW structure, on a chain level the map $\phi_*$ is given by
\begin{cases}
a\mapsto d\\
b\mapsto c\\
c\mapsto b\\
d\mapsto a\\
\end{cases}
Since $a,b,c,d$ are the generators of $H_1(M_2)$ (consider cellular homology for example), we conclude $\phi_*:H_1(M_2)\to H_1(M_2)$ is given b...
Enjoy nonsensical pictures with cumbersome calculations
The theorem 16.5 in Munkres' analysis on manifolds reads:
Let $A$ be open in $\mathbb R^n$; let $f : A → ℝ$ be continuous. Let $\{ϕ_i\}$
be a partition of unity on $A$ having compact supports. The integral $∫_A f$ exists
if and only if the series $\sum_i \int_A \phi_i|f|$ converges and in this ca...
@Thorgott Hello, could you take a look at my solution (my latest chat before this)? I wonder if it makes sense and (whether it's ok or not) if there's an easier way to solve it.
I think the calculation of $\phi_*:H_2\to H_2$ can be improved. I used $\Delta$-complex but it's quite complicated.
Let $F_n$ denote the $n$-th Fibonacci number. I am trying to show that if $n \ge 29$, then $F_n > (1.6)^n$. The hint is to prove this by contradiction and use the smallest counterexample. By counterexample, I take it to mean any $n \in \Bbb{N}$ such that $F_n \le (1.6)^n$. But isn't it true that $F_0 = 0 < 1 = (1.6)^0$, so $n=0$ would be the smallest counterexample? How does that even help? I don't see how to prove this by contradiction (or even induction).
Yeah, I didn't get very far with induction. So, $F_{n+1} = F_n + F_{n-1} > F_n > (1.6)^n$. That's all I've come up with so far, but that inequality isn't good enough.
I don't think we can necessarily say $F_{n-1} > (1.6)^{n-1}$ because it's possible $n-1=28$ which is a counterexample.
@Ajay Do you know how to get the induction to work?
The theorem 16.5 in Munkres' analysis on manifolds reads:
Let $A$ be open in $\mathbb R^n$; let $f : A → ℝ$ be continuous. Let $\{ϕ_i\}$
be a partition of unity on $A$ having compact supports. The integral $∫_A f$ exists
if and only if the series $\sum_i \int_A \phi_i|f|$ converges and in this ca...
Partition of unity is defined for $\scr A$, a collection of open sets. How should one interpret it in case it is defined for an open set A? It seems natural to me to treat that as follows: For every a in A, there is a ball $B_a$ lying completely in A. So take $\scr A=$ $\{B_a: a\in A\}$.
@Koro it's unclear what you are asking. Can you elaborate a bit more? Given an open set A, you can find a partition of unity subordinate to each open cover of A. That open cover could be anywhere from just A itself, or something much larger.
'subordinate to' terminology is not used in Munkres (at least upto the point of introducing partitions of unity). But my question is: based on theorem 16.3 (stated in post), one would think of partitions of unity to be defined for a collection of open sets (this collection is denoted by $\scr A$, say). But then, in 16.5, the partitions seems to be defined for an open set A. How does that make sense without any mention of $\scr A$?
To make 'partitions for an open set A' meaningful, I'm trying to assign a meaning to it in my last to last message.
Well it's rare to work on a problem and not have anything to show for it.
My rule of thumb is that you can ask in the comments what they have tried. If you want to answer something, it should always be in the form of a hint, because complete solutions in stackexchange answers are terrible for everyone.
If $A = \begin{bmatrix} x & 1\\ y & 0\end{bmatrix}, B = \begin{bmatrix} z & 1\\ w & 0\end{bmatrix}$, for $x,y,z,w \in \Bbb{R}$.
I have observed by considering many random values of $x,y,z,w$ that:
If all the eigenvalues of $A^2B$ and $AB^2$ are less than one in absolute value, then $det(AB+A+I)<...
is there neat distributions on $(0,1)\times (0,1)$ whose density is not 100% but the complement of area under curve + area under curve has total area 100%? As if the distribution function partitions the region into density and complement density that add to 1
normal distribution has a density but complement density is infinite
the area + complement-of-area bit seems to amount to: if i have a function $f:(0,1)\to(0,1)$, then $$\int_0^1 f(x)\,dx + \int_0^1 (1-f(x))\,dx=\int_0^1 1\,dx = 1.$$
(or just "i've divided a unit square into two pieces")
some silly probability exercises, some fun polarization physics, and some silly balancing-a-meterstick tasks
:P
the probability exercises amount to them playing with simple raffle games to see what distributions of outcomes they get
the tickets have three options on each side. each option gives a +/- result, and the two sides have opposite results for each option. so one side could be ++- and the other --+. then you'll always get opposite results unless one person takes option 1/2 and the other takes 3.
that's simple enough. but there's 4 such ticket types---what happens when you have some mixture?
the balancing-a-meterstick stuff is really an excuse to talk about linear correlation: if you put three masses on a meterstick, then the net torque due to their weights is a linear function of the positions. so if you hold the net torque fixed while varying two of the mass positions, you can do bivariate regression to recover the masses
first varying the masses independently, then discarding some of the pairs in order to get correlation between them
@anak @Semiclassical i just meant the normalised area enclosed by the gaussian curve and the x axis is 1 and if you take all the area on the plane besides that enclosed area it's infinite
Your choices of letters is very awkward. Parametrize your unit circle by $\theta$ and use elementary trigonometry to give $(x,y)$ in the punctured unit disk in terms of $\theta$ and $z$ (which I would ordinarily call $r$).
but does this then mean that if $X$ is a discrete random variable with values in some discrete set $S$, then $\Bbb{E}_{\nu}(X)=\sum_{x\in S} x ~~\nu(\{x\})$?
ah okey, so we denoted by $\Bbb{E}_x(X)=\Bbb{E}_{\delta_x}(X)$ where $\delta_x$ is the dirac measure. But then would this mean $\Bbb{E}_x(X)=\Bbb{E}_{\delta_x}(X)=\sum_{y\in S} y\delta_x(y)=x$?
Any techniques to "invert" this non-invertible matrix $\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0 &\dots & 0 & 0 \\ -a & 1 & 0 & \dots & 0 & 0 \\ \dots & \dots & \dots & \dots & \dots & \dots \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & \dots & -a & 1 \end{bmatrix} * \begin{bmatrix} c \\ x_1 \\ \vdots \\ x_N \end{bmatrix} = d \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ u_1 \\ \vdots \\ u_N \end{bmatrix}$. The goal is to find an expression for $\vec{x}$ in terms of $\vec{u}$. But the use of that constant in my recurrence relation starts messing things up.