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00:00 - 17:0017:00 - 00:00

00:34
I have a good question about formal proofs
Can I paste a 14 line snippet of python code which looks surprisingly like real math (using syntax sugars)
A. I’m not going to read this. My days of grading homework are long gone. B. I hope it won’t be searchable. Plenty of people (no longer me, obviously) are assigning graded homework out of the book. Having solutions easily available to be copied is not something that pleases me … any more than the illegal electronic versions available. @polite
from abc import *
from set import Set

def magma(A:str, op:str="*"):
A = Set(A)
A.closure = Axiom(([a,b] in A) >> (eval(f'a{op}b') in A))
return A

A = magma("A", "*")

with Proof((a in A) >> ((b in A) >> (a*b in A))) as p:
p.let(a in A)
p.QED # throws exception
# here p is not a valid proof (yet)
So any way how do I complete the proof at the bottom?
In other words if we know that $A$ is automatically closed under * by definition, then how do we prove that (a in A) => ((b in A) => (a*b in A))
@MathematicalEmergency
It's a currying thing, but I'm lost as to how we usually prove this as maths people. My library is going to be ZFC based but indirectly (I'm just implementing things that are interesting objects such as the integers. No one likes a formal proof that's 100 lines to prove that 2 < 3
So whatever proof I present to users will be at a high level
The library's datastructures reflect that so far
@TedShifrin Is there any way I can bribe you for part A? And of course, it won't be searchable unless you say otherwise.
00:40
@MathematicalEmergency that sounds precisely like the definition of being closed under *? So I would guess you need to feed it the axiom as the proof somehow
I guess you gave me an ideA
draw a proof tree
@politeproofs i think you should not push this any further
It should be simple. You say let(a in A). But how do you "introduce" the next implication?
It's kind of in between formal and informal proofs
so that's why I'm confused as heck
@MathematicalEmergency but that's just understanding how your program works right? where is the informal bit
The informal bit comes from the fact that the API has "informal English keywords"
So they resemble and only resemble English-math statements. I don't want even API users to see "how things work under the hood". Because how that works, I'm straying from standard forms of implementation
I'm just coding whatever is needed and no more
00:45
@politeproofs Not unless you want to pay my hourly rate, which isn’t cheap. I can, as always, answer the occasional question in here.
in the natural number game, you would have been able to call A.closure with two inputs
which would then return the statement a*b in A
I might do stuff like automatically commute two to n propositions P1 & ... & Pn across &'s for you so you don't have to "enter in hypotheses exactly"
The chatroom is malfunctioning, again.
@CalvinKhor that's interesting, what's that
what's what?
00:46
natural number game
it amazes me that you're looking into this and you don't know that :) ill get a link
I understand. In that case, what's wrong with 1.2.22? Let $\overrightarrow{AB} = x$ and $\overrightarrow{AC} = y$. Clearly $x$ and $y$ are not parallel, so by 1.2.20. (b), $bx + ay$ bisects the angle between $x$ and $y$. Since $\overrightarrow{AD}$ also bisects the angle between $x$ and $y$, it follows that $\overrightarrow{AD} = t(bx + ay)$ for some $t \in \mathbb{R}$.
Then $\overrightarrow{AD} = \overrightarrow{AP} + \overrightarrow{PD}$, but notice that $\triangle PBD \sim \triangle ABC$, so $\overrightarrow{AD} = s(x + y)$ for some $s \in \mathbb{R}$. Then by 1.1.10. (b), we must have t
But clearly, this goes against the illustration provided in the book.
That uses Lean which is based on CIC, I know that
but I'm doing my own thing as Lean is too esoteric for new users
I want 0 learning curve for new math users who know python already
So Lean is Type-theoretically founded. I'm just founding this upon "anything". I currently don't even care if there are paradoxes popping up
Any axioms
But the way I work with them is "all standard methods used by humans"
00:50
well the game makes it seem p easy to learn :P but since you're making this up on the fly, you just need to figure out how to make A.closure eat two proofs, one proof that a in A and another that b in A, and spit out a*b in A
or is that not satisfactory somehow and you want a different "idea"?
No, that's pretty much it
But there's a lot to be done internally
more than checking if expressions match up to variable sub, and recording the mapping
and mapping back to the user's chosen variables, etc
I have to store each step in the proof, for one
I could store it as the .py file, but I also want "objects" in memory
Polite…. huh? Looks like garbage. What is $P$ and where did it come from?
I also want to convert (easily; unlike with Lean4) the proof steps to fluid English-math
+ KaTeX support
So you can pass along what you think appropriate LaTeX is for your symbols
@TedShifrin $P$ is a point on $\overrightarrow{AB}$
Or stuff like $\text{Hom}_C(A,B)$ will be generated for you because $\text{Hom}$ is standard notation
00:53
@MathematicalEmergency have you seen mizar.org/fm ?
What for? It certainly has led you to absolute garbage.
I'm just describing $\overrightarrow{AD}$ as a linear combination of $x$ and $y$
You are not using the important thing and have created garbage. What do you need to use about $D$ that you have not yet used?
@CalvinKhor heard of it before. I could spend 5 years trying to understand a single paper at that level. I prefer to just code until I understand the underlying issues
The underlying problems emerge naturally, everybody including my project needs some type of variable substitution awareness
e.g
I'm not sure... I'm not using $D$ being on $\overrightarrow{BC}$ too much
00:57
Not at all. Clearly that is the way to go.
@MathematicalEmergency well, i am not really asking you to read the fine print. but the code is already human readable
Depends on which human!
After all, Thierry Coquand had to do a lot of inventive coding I think to test out ideas. Since the end result was a useable PA.
$\overrightarrow{AD} = x + \overrightarrow{BD}$ and $\overrightarrow{AD} = y + \overrightarrow{CD}$
@CalvinKhor I'm not sure what you're trying to tell me :)
01:00
Go think, polite.
sciendo.com/article/10.1515/forma-2015-0010 if I understand correctly, the paper is compilable code as-is
01:20
did anyone uncover the secret to spending absurd amounts of time sitting studying
other than drugs
01:41
ample breaks and exercise are key
sitting is kind of like smoking
shin: i think your answer is 'no'
@MathematicalEmergency sound advice
i will take that as an excuse to watch a movie
Send Munchkin to lead calisthenics!
my wife is going to a conference and munchkin is 'helping' her pack, it's not going well
she's gonna show up and realize half her stuff has been replaced with stuffed animals
01:47
ROFL
Send Munchkin to infiltrate and sabotage MaraLago.
i proposed this and for some reason the wife was not a fan
You proposed which?
basically that i not be left alone with munchkin for 4 days
Your wife underestimates your deleterious effscts.
We can so attest.
if she were reported to the authorities for abandoning her child to me, i could understand it.
i'm not saying do that
i'm just saying.
01:54
You wsnt to switch legal expertise snd defend yourself ?
haha, our cat just attacked our daughter.
Better to ship Munchkin to MaraLago.
02:52
@leslietownes cat's just looking out for you
03:30
-1
Q: nontrivial foliation of the cubed unit interval

geocalc33Does $M=(0,1)^3$ admit a co-dimension 1 foliation whose leaves have the property that they admit closed loops and s.t. the leaves converge to two points (i.e. they converge to $011$ or $100$)? I can prove the trivial cases for $M$ in which the foliation is simply by planes, and the slightly more ...

Anyone know how to solve the last case?
 
2 hours later…
05:29
Is $2^{\phi(k)}-1$ divisible by $k$?
where $\phi$ is Euler phi function.
where k is odd.
05:46
if I have two coins with probs p1 and p2 respectively of giving a head, what is the expected number of coin tosses until they are both heads?
is it just 1/p1+1/p2?
@Koro
In number theory, Euler's theorem (also known as the Fermat–Euler theorem or Euler's totient theorem) states that, if n and a are coprime positive integers, and φ ( n ) {\displaystyle \varphi (n)} is Euler's totient function, then a raised to the power φ ( n ) {\displaystyle \varphi (n)} is congruent to 1 modulo n; that is a φ ( n ) ≡...
@graffe assumin you flip coin 1 then coin 2, write down the outcome, then repeat. probability of HH in one flip is p1p2. The number of coin tosses until both heads is a geometric distribution with success parameter p1p2. So the expected number of tosses until both heads is 1/(p1p2) (if you count the last toss i.e. the HH toss; otherwise subtract 1)
06:04
Hii everyone. I have been going through a lot of Stress from past few months. I think what is the pont of studying science , maths or eating or travelling or like living if we die anyway. I study so hard for my maths but knowing i have to die 1 day. I just feel there is no point of working so hard on my maths. All that i worked hard , i will forget it.
@S.M.T what's your conclusion then, not to work at all? because nothing you said is specific to maths
No , its not specific to math problem. I just wanted help in my fear
if you're stressed try to take a break
if you're in a uni they should have counsellors
I have but i cant get this thought out of my head.
@CalvinKhor Ill be in uni in 3-4 months
the way i see it, you're going to die whether you do maths or not. doing maths is strictly better than not, and you don't have much time, so get going asap ;)
06:29
Is this the same as for all x and y that is natural number such that x is composite or y is prime or (x>=y)?
Or is it just saying there doesn't exist x and y such that x is prime and y is composite and x<y?
I am confused about this.
I have heard negation of there exists for all but the professor was saying there doesn't exist.
@CalvinKhor I know the function. But I wondered if the statement I mentioned above is true or not.
@Koro the wikipedia page I linked is precisely the result you asked for in the case $a=2$
its not a link to the wiki page on Euler's Totient function, but rather the "Euler Totient Theorem"
@Koro or rather I should say, from the wikipedia page, if you put a=2, then the theorem stated there is precisely the result you asked for. can't edit anymore
@graffe slight slip-up in my earlier comment; what I called a "toss" is a pair of tosses. so multiply by 2...
06:45
Ignore my question. I know the answer.
@CalvinKhor basically, that’s generalised version of Fermat’s theorem.
fermat's little. yeah
:-)
I don’t know how I missed that. Thanks a lot @Calvin.
yw!
i cant understand the proof on wikipedia cuz im too rusty, so feeling pretty lucky i managed to help lol
07:21
why?
07:33
i solved it by applying l hospital on the limit
nvm not
 
2 hours later…
09:40
In practice, how do people usually compute cohomology group of a manifold? Definition itself is quite complicated to me so I usually use universal coefficient theorem to compute it indirectly using homology.
@onepotatotwopotato cellular cohomology, Poincare duality, ...
clever use to Mayer-Vietoris
Ok poincare duality and MV sequence. But people rarely compute cohomology from the very definition right? Or do they?
They dont
alright thanks
10:07
usually computing cohomology is no harder than computing homology
not even in light of UCT, but most techniques for computing homology work just as well to compute cohomology
the only thing you ever compute by definition is the homology of a point
the rest can be thought of as abstract nonsense (not that that's a viewpoint I'd advise)
a computer can write down (co)homology given a cell structure, sure. the tools i mentioned are just to do it faster than computers in certain occasions
i dont need to write down the cellular chain complex to know the cohomology of a 3-manifold
Is there a computer program that writes down (co)homology of a given cell structure?
10:25
@BalarkaSen computer would need simplicial, not cellular, right?
10:35
Shouldn't the statement "everybody doesn't love someone" be equivalent to "nobody loves someone" instead of "nobody loves everybody"?
0
Q: Predicate Logic Expression: "Nobody loves anybody."

ex.nihilExpress the following in predicate logic: "Nobody loves anybody." $$P(x): \text{x is a person.}$$ $$L(x,y): \text{x loves y.}$$ My attempt was: $$\neg[\exists x(P(x) \land \forall y P(y) \longrightarrow L(x,y))]$$ Although my instructor wrote it as: $$\neg[\exists x(P(x) \land ( \forall y P(...

@Thorgott why would it need simplicial
cause I don't believe a computer can compute degrees
for reasonable functions, it can, but not for unreasonable functions
it depends on how you input attaching maps
fair, I don't even know how to input a map into a computer
or a space, for that matter
simplicial is straightforward cause that just needs discrete data
suppose theres an intermediate category, where you have a CW complex with cellular attaching maps
which should be amenable to coding
or something.
just do some brain printing
10:49
yeah, idk, but im also no willing to think hard about anything
everything in sight is triangulable
2
 
2 hours later…
13:11
Feeling any better today? @S.M.T
13:44
Why the last statement: $H^p(X;R)\cong Hom_R(H_p(X;R),R)$ true?
13:59
try proving it by hand
the punchline should be that all sequences of vector spaces split, more precisely you can find retractions $C_p(X;R)\rightarrow Z_p(X;R)$ and $C_p(X;R)\rightarrow B_p(X;R)$ on cycles and boundaries respectively
the former will help establish surjectivity and the latter will help establish injectivity
and, actually, the former will be possible too if $R$ is just a PID, so in that case the map is still surjective, its kernel is computed by the UCT
14:34
I was thinking of the proof by proving $H^p(X;R)\otimes_R H_p(X;R)\to R$ is isomorphism if $R$ is a field and taking adjoint proves the statement. You're talking about this or directly showing the statement?
How do you plan to prove that's an isomorphism
Hi @AminIdelhaj
Long time
What's up? It's been a while!
the map $H^p(X;R)\otimes_RH_p(X;R)\rightarrow R$ is usually not an isomorphism
thats a misconception at the level of linear algebra
$R^2\otimes R^2\rightarrow R,\,(x,y)\otimes(u,v)\mapsto xu+yv$ is not an isomorphism, but its adjoints are isomorphisms
anyway, the proofs shouldnt look too different regardless of whether you formulate them in terms of the pairing or the adjoint
@AminIdelhaj not too bad, what have you been up to
15:04
Hey soryr
So I've been kinda just trying mentally to get back in the game somewaht
I was home for a year during covid and I feel like since then something broke in me and I haven't been able to get work done anymore
Idk if it's burnout or motivation's gone or what
But I'm trying to get it back
@BalarkaSen How about you man?
yeah thats happened to quite a lot of people i know
its been a rough 2ish years
@AminIdelhaj im alright. trying to learn more topology, as always. reading novels.
Nice, any particular topics you've been looking at lately?
currently im thinking about lefschetz fibrations and kirby calculus
Good stuff! Right now I should start reading a paper on the "Kuznecov trace formula"
is this about automorphic forms
15:10
It's in that vein yeah. I haven't started reading this paper so I know nothing of it yet
gotcha
But the OG version is the Selberg trace formula. My quasi-joke is that this is all a very souped up version of saying that sum of the eigenvalues is the sum of the diagonal :P
It's good stuff for sure, the general phrasing for topological groups specializes to the typical version for hyperbolic surfaces (or more generally symmetric spaces), as well as to Poisson summation and to Frobenius reciprocity
i dont know anything here but have heard something to the effect of length spectra of hyperbolic surfaces and if it determines the geometry or not
15:15
@user4539917 Nah
Yea, so for hyperbolic surfaces the statement is basically, write your surface as $\Gamma\setminus \mathbb{H}$ where $\Gamma$ has only the identity and hyperbolic elements
(Let's say compact for now)
@Thorgott Right I misinterpreted adjoint isomoprhism between Hom and tensor. It seems the statement follows from UCT. Thanks anyway
Let $r_i$ be the spectral parameters, so the eigenvalues of the Laplacian are $\frac{1}{4} + r_i^2$, and let $G(S)$ be the set of closed oriented geodesics on $S$.
@onepotatotwopotato yes it follows from UCT but you can and should prove it by hand
@AminIdelhaj arright
$$\sum_{i=0}^{\infty} h(r_i) = \frac{\text{Area}(S)}{2\pi}\int_0^{\infty} rh(r)\tanh(\pi r) dr + \sum_{\gamma \in G(S)} \frac{\ell(\gamma_0)}{e^{\frac{1}{2}\ell(\gamma)} - e^{-\frac{1}{2}\ell(\gamma)} } g(\ell(\gamma))$$
15:21
h is?
also whats g
Here $g:\mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$ is even, smooth, and compactly supported, $h$ is its Fourier transform, $\ell(\gamma)$ is the length of $\gamma$, and $\gamma_0$ is the unique oriented prime geodesic satisfying $\gamma_0^m = \gamma$
ah, neat!
So now depending on your choice of $g$ and $h$ you can use this to do different things. For instance, if you want to prove the Weyl law, you want to choose $g$ so that its support lies in $[-R,R]$ where $R$ is less than the length of any geodesic on $S$. You'd hope to then be able to $h$ to be characteristic of $[-X,X]$, but obv $h$ must have Paley-Wiener type, so you need to massage it a fair bit
in some precise sense (above formula), the length spectrum and the spectrum of the Laplacian are dual.
15:24
@AminIdelhaj Gotcha, so can count geodesics with this
wtf is this analysis im seeing
This is number theory Thorgott
analytic number theory on riemann surfaces, Thorgott
It's also analysis and it's also hyperbolic geometry
number theory hasn't existed for centuries
it's just a dogwhistle for analysis or for algebra, depending on whom you talk to
15:26
@BalarkaSen Yeah, I don't know the details but there's basically the "prime geodesic theorem" that's proven using this business
cool stuff!
i like geodesics, but the rest looks dubious
prime geodesics are like prime numbers, thorgott
so you can count how many are there upto some length and ask for a PNT
nOmBeR ThEorY
FWIW, the LHS of this expression is called the "spectral side" of the trace formula, and the RHS is called the geometric side
And my quasi-joke except the more time goes on the more I wonder how much of a joke this
what makes them prime
15:29
Is that "sum of eigenvalues = sum of diagonals" is similar. LHS = spectral side, RHS = geometric side :P
@AminIdelhaj makes a lot of sense
@Thorgott closed geodesic which is not a power of some geodesic.
Prime geodesics are basically those that "don't wind around"
Yup
can you do this with hyperbolic graphs
ah ok
count prime cycles instead
15:32
But yeah stuff like Weyl Law, prime geodesic theorem, and bounds you get in arithmetic quantum chaos (here you want to consider Hecke operators as well, and you get an "amplified trace formula") are all applications where you're sorta choosing g and h in a clever way. Some applications (big in Langlands) are where you vary the group. These I don't understand in the least lol
Hmm, I've seen something similar in Lubotzky-Phillips-Sarnak
Where they construct Ramanujan graphs
i know the result but not details
The proof of the trace formula basically boils down to, these two expressions are both different ways of writing the trace of a certain integral operator
i guess that must be the right perspective though, not to think about hyperbolic graphs (which are like H^2, has very little closed geodesics) but their finite quotients. Ramanujan graphs are exactly like large quotients of p-regular trees
@AminIdelhaj hm ok cool
I'm not quite familiar with the term "hyperbolic graph" as such, in general I actually tend to think of k-regular graphs as being analogous to hyperbolic surfaces
Because the (p+1)-regular tree is basically "p-adic hyperbolic plane" in a way
oh, i was just thinking of Cayley graphs of delta-hyperbolic groups. They're more like universal covers
@AminIdelhaj right
its exactly $\mathrm{SL}_2(\Bbb Q_p)/\mathrm{SL}_2(\Bbb Z_p)$, the real version being $T^1 X(1)$
15:38
And yeah there's some weird connections in this way. I went to this conference about a month and a half ago about Laplacians on random graphs and surfaces
It was a bit packed (6 hours a day of talks) and I was fairly fatigued so I missed a good bit of stuff and am a bit salty as a result
But a lot of what I did go to was p sick
if you read about p-adics too much you'd get p-sick
Hahahahaha
But yeah it started off talking about why you can speak of a "random surface", first talk just kinda stated that volume of moduli space is finite
Second did go into some detail on Mirzakhani's work on integrating on moduli space
@Thorgott: random surfaces are everywhere see
And this set the stage for some cool stuff. One common theme for hyperbolic surfaces is the Selberg eigenvalue conjecture, that for Gamma a congruence subgroup of SL(2,Z), the smallest non-zero eigenvalue of the Laplacian on Gamma\H is at least 1/4
Selberg was able to prove that it's at least 3/16
interesting
15:42
my eyes and ears are shut
"p-adic hyperbolic plane"
do you also believe in p-adic Lie groups?
wrong person to ask
And one of the results presented in this conference was that for $\varepsilon > 0$, the probability that a random surface in $\mathcal{M}_g$ has $\lambda_1 < \frac{3}{16} - \varepsilon$ goes to $0$ as $g\to\infty$
hes all about that
@AminIdelhaj are there examples which are lower than 3/16 lol
im confused, didnt you say selberg proved $\lambda_1 \geq 3/16$ always
ONly for arithmetic surfaces
This is for a general surface
15:47
As for examples, I don't know any myself and I'm not even sure what's in general known. iirc we don't know an infinite family of arithmetic surfaces whose lambda_1 is bounded below by 1/4
It seems like this kinda thing is hard to compute
But yeah I tend to think of Ramanujan graphs as being analogues of what we hope arithmetic surfaces are, namely that in each case the spectrum of the Laplacian is controlled by that of the universal cover
gotcha
There's sorta two directions at the moment regarding my possible research area. I originally was gonna be looking at bounding spherical functions but that just wasn't doing it for me. Not sure if it's because I'm just not into the problem or because of burnout holdover or what
But one possibility would be estimating the volume of a surface whose lambda_1 is at least some T
By doing "linear programming on h in the trace formula"
that sounds cool.
Another possibility would be expander graphs/complexes
i like explicit examples
15:59
Anyway I gotta get going for now but yeah it was good catching up, I should ask you more about the stuff you've been doing as well! :)
Also Thorgott careful there's a random surface behind you
sure, take care!
@AminIdelhaj lol
is it true that $L^1$ functions satisfy $\int_X |f| d \mu < \epsilon$ for $\mu(X) < \delta$?
@AminIdelhaj almost surely?
@JoeShmo what's $\varepsilon$, what's $\delta$? that's hardly a complete statement
small
$X$ a meager enough set
if $f \in L^p$ for $p > 1$, then it is true
oh, lets say on a probability space
that does not answer my question
16:07
it's self explanatory: for $\varepsilon > 0$, does there exist $\delta > 0$ so that $\mu(X) < \delta \implies \int_X |f| d\mu < \varepsilon$?
if it's true, then the proof should be obvious
you know what? take $X = \{|f| > M\}$ such that it satisfies $\mu(X) < \delta$, where $\delta$ is small enough to your satisfaction
the latter is possible, since $f \in L^1$
does there exist $M$ large enough so that $\int_X |f| < \varepsilon$?
just use dominated convergence theorem
@JoeShmo this is obvious by partitioning the whole space into $|f| < M$ and $|f| > M$
yeah yeah
ty
your quantification is messed up
were you asking this for all $X$ s.t. $\mu(X)<\delta$ or are you asking for the existence of an $X$ you can freely choose
cause if it's the latter, you might as well be lazy and choose $X=\emptyset$
16:13
right, which is why I restricted to $X$ being a superlevel set
what a mathematician's question @Thorgott
a frenchman's question
so what's the actual question now, with proper quantification of all appearing variables?
the last paragraph where $X$ is a superlevel set is unambiguous
@Thorgott for all epsilon is there a delta such that for all measurable sets X, if mu(X) < delta, then int_X |f| < eps
yes there is a delta
$\delta$
there
delta male mindset
2
16:18
ambiguity isn't a concern cause no proper statement has been formulated yet
thats false
or rather, you have formulated a proper statement before, but it's apparently not the one you actually meant to ask about
@JoeShmo what is false
@Thorgott's second to last comment
"what is false"?
16:19
bye
it was indeed false, which is why I corrected it right after
on the other hand, you still have to produce the statement you actually mean to ask about
unless you meant to ask about the original one and everything about superlevel sets was meaningless
Thor, let's take a moment to appreciate that this is an incredibly pointless discussion about our feelings.
facts over feelings my friend
I don't think it's pointless to talk about feelings
4
16:22
that said, I am satisfied with just restricting my original question to superlevel sets,
which is standard procedure in probability theory
lets just say, for the sake of argument, there is a question
2
lets stipulate that, ok?
and such that the choice of the original $X$ is unambiguous
so $X$ is a fixed superlevel set?
yeah, so you could quantify as follows: $X_M = \{|f| > M\}$
then $\mu(X_M) \xrightarrow{M \to \infty} 0$
interesting
16:25
which part
because that's a different statement from the one you get when you take $X$ to be fixed in the previous statement
again, this is all standard procedure in probability
no, I would argue that they next to identical
they are pretty different
pops popcorn
you might take $X = \{|f| > M\}$ for a fixed $M$, such that $\mu(X) < \delta$, $\delta$ small enough to your satisfcation
I know when I'm being trolled
I know
16:28
what you're neglecting is the difference between $M$ being fixed beforehand and quantifying over all $M$ such that $\mu(X_M)<\delta$
^^that is IDENTICAL to the formulation with the $X_M$'s
agree to disagree
How do you define identical here? If these statements all hold true for an L^1 function, then they're trivially equivalent
identical, as in it's a standard analysis formulation
You mean: Assuming your statement about small sets yielding small integrals, and proving that the sets X_M you take become small, then the integrals over the sets X_M become small?
identical statements should not mean identical truth values
16:35
@user2103480 no, no, the quantification is $\exists f$
lmao
@BalarkaSen what about the bimbofication
it's
$\forall[f]\in L^1\forall M\in\mathbb{R}\forall\varepsilon>0\exists\delta>0\colon\mu(X_M)<\delta\Rightarrow\int_{X_M}|f|d\mu<\varepsilon$
vs.
$\forall[f]\in L^1\forall\varepsilon>0\exists\delta>0\forall M\in\mathbb{R}\colon\mu(X_M)<\delta\Rightarrow\int_{X_M}|f|d\mu<\varepsilon$
important difference
first off, you deserve to be banished from here for quantifying elements of L^1 as equivalence classes
alg*braist
I'm with you @user2103480
16:42
whoa, there, what happened to freedom of speech
freedom of speech was scrapped for snowflake culture
disagreement is fighting words. havent you heard
In physics, it is common to write infinite sums as integrals, without chicking their rigor (If riemann sum upper and lower actually converge to the same value)
Is there a quick way to check if the calculation done is rigoros, without falling back on the riemannian sums (or rather should i say, Valid)
but not all sums are integrals
wdym
infinite riemann sums?
Well, i can not answer this question. Physicists, books, lectures, tend to just write any sum that goes to infinity as an integral, and i am trying to find out, if there is a good way to check for the validity of this calculations, physicsts do not really care about rigor, but surely, the people who found out the theories and calculated these sums, probably checked for the validity. but most physicists do not follow those steps and just write sums as integrals as "understandable step"
16:58
there's no general method i know of for checking the validity of this stuff. physicists are fond of writing integrals that have no meaning, and integrals that have the exact meaning that you see as written. with no real way of telling the difference other than learning physics.
Is there some theorem that states if x and y in sum is that and this then sum = integral?
Leslie, i study physics.
You do not learn this stuff there....
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