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00:00
@D.C.theIII I should probably flag it for moderator attention.
Is there a moderator here who can protect me from the horrible depredations of @TedShifrin?!
Okay, I gots ta go make diners. Buh-bye.
I'll alert the room owner.
Ted...
00:15
You summoned?
DC, I think you’ve received more venom than anyone else.
Why did you bother changing your name for just a roman numeral?
00:38
it's a sponsored promotion of lesliecoin III. it's the third iteration of our cryptocurrency. the second was based on a fork of the original blockchain after a cybercriminal going by the name shed tifrin made off with most of our assets. the second was a switch from proof-of-work to proof-of-laziness, which we did in the name of environmental friendliness.
the third, rather. this is really deep crypto stuff, a lot of people wouldn't understand it.
Some of us couldn’t care less.
we have a lot of promotions in store for june. june 22 is the month of lesliecoin.
A day = a month?
whoops. june 2022.
@TedShifrin the former chap was deviant, this individual is more refined and distinguished.....
00:47
or june '22.
or as some would have it june MMXXII.
I see no evidence, DC
this year looks pretty cool in roman numerals. the 1980s were a mess.
I only like palindromic :)
there's a bridge on the berkeley campus from 1914 or 1924 or something like that where they write IIII instead of IV because that was an alternate style and maybe regarded as more official at one time. i noticed that on one of my first visits there because it struck me as odd.
it went against everything i'd been told about roman numerals.
hippies with a chisel
@leslietownes iconoclasts
 
3 hours later…
03:53
I have never seen IIII. They goofed and did a McCarthy on it.
EM4
EM4
04:48
no idea, why?
05:09
Wow, I must be wrong.
@robjohn Watch shopping Robjohn?....I could see you as an Audemars type of guy....
05:24
i gave my son an 1965 omega seamaster for his prom. it belonged to my uncle.
05:36
family heirloom
my uncle was a large animal vet, my aunt used to refer to it as the arse watch.
no, he didn't :-) but it is an amusing visual
Lol....my mind didn't even venture to those dimensions.....I'm not sure I was the deviant in the chat before.....🤣
05:57
well, he was the bull in the bowler hat from time to time, but that of course would be the wrong label on my aunt's part
 
4 hours later…
09:54
Do students usually learn (linear) presentation of finite group in undergraduate algebra class?
 
2 hours later…
12:16
Can the associative property of addition be proved I mean can a+(b+c)=(a+b)+c be proven?
maybe with induction?
@Belucat From what set of axioms?
Or, perhaps, a better response would be "Either associativity must be assumed as an axiom, or it must be proved."
Do u mean it's an axiom
and has no proof
(Also, presumably, you mean associativity of the real numbers? or the natural numbers? There are algebraic structures for which associativity does not hold, e.g. the octonions).
Oh
I meant the real numbers
12:25
@Belucat No. That's not what I said.
oh
then?
The real numbers can be defined axiomatically. The associativity of addition is generally one of the assumptions of such an axiomatic definition.
On the other hand, there are other ways of defining the reals, for which associativity of addition must be proved.
What is your starting point?
What are you assuming?
for example, you can also start with the set theory
and build numbers from sets, define operations, and prove stuff
I ain't assuming anything I am going through Calculus by Spivak where in the first chapter he states a+(b+c)=(a+b)+c and uses this to prove the associativity that holds for sum of 4, 5 numbers.
So I wanted to know how was (a+b)+c=a+(b+c) accepted?
@Belucat You are assuming something. You are assuming whatever definitions or assumptions Spivak is assuming.
12:28
Will you please be clear what Spivak is assuming?
Since Spivak is presenting calculus, he is likely defining the reals axiomatically. Hence he assumes that addition is associative. But I don't have a copy of Spivak handy, so I don't know what assumptions he is actually making.
He calls it a property
Oh Can you please present a proof for associativity?
@Belucat Starting from what axioms?
And in what context?
I ain't sure about it, will you please give a random proof (u can use any axioms)
Again, if you are reading a text on calculus or analysis, the associativity of addition on the reals is usually taken as an axiom. Hence there is no proof.
12:31
I am just learning mathematics
@Belucat maybe he is relying on the assumption that the real numbers is a field? and then its a property
Oh
What do u mean by context?
OMG MATHS IS SOO GOOD..
He also says we simply agree a+b+c just as (a+b)+c=a+(b+c)
@Belucat Sure. Because if your goal is to study calculus, then you don't want to spend a lot of time building up a system of real numbers, since the goal is to actually do something with those numbers.
So, you introduce the reals axiomatically (i.e. you "simply agree" to the properties of the reals) and proceed from there.
Yeah But I really feel bad for not knowing addition properly!
I don't understand the complaint.
If you want to have a deeper understanding of these properties, take another class.
12:35
Of what?
Perhaps a course in naive set theory, or abstract algebra.
Any book you would like to refer?
Or a course in number systems.
I can't take any course right now!
i just have proved inductively that if (a+1)+c=a+(1+c) then (a+b)+c=a+(b+c)
for natural numbers
12:37
Oh
you can try it if you want, its not hard
Sorry for hijacking the thread, but I just want to say that my disability in making decisions just helped me saving money on choosing a new laptop. I go with my old PC :)
XD
@Ofek Yep sure!
Choosing either brand and/or hardware specs doesn't help in calculating my combinatorics problems lol
12:42
do you know set theory btw? if so, i can try write something to prove all the properties of real numbers from set theory.
tbh im kinda interested to do it
I don't know set theory, I am a school student btw
I am sorry
I remember that set theory made me upset
up set
@Ofek unhappy?
im just kidding about upset about sets
😂😂
So instead I gave up choosing laptop and spent about $80 buying introduction to algorithm 4ed. I'm so smart
@linear_combinatori_probabi I have a first edition copy of text called "Introduction to Algorithms" which I apparently got for nine dollars.
Was that book soo much expensive?!
12:51
$80 is cheap thrills for modern textbooks.
New copies of introductory calculus texts can cost as much as $200.
😯😯
I once obsessed in choosing calculus text book like choosing a laptop
because they're exp as fu*k
pdfs are better!
@Belucat Strong disagree. I hate reading off of a screen.
You could take a printout
12:54
I once forked a Repo. on GitHub about pdfs and received an email, saying that I (and those other users that forked it) are violating some laws
@Belucat Sure, but the cost of printing out a book is not nothing. And hardcover books are actually bound.
@XanderHenderson I know it hurts
I read pdfs but I enjoy read textbook, two different worlds
I agree @linear_combinatori_probabi
paper books make me calm
Jam
Jam
13:42
For example, when E is a vector bundle a section of E is an element of the vector space $E_x$ lying over each point $x\in B$"
i dont get this sentence
sections of vector undles are functions from the base to the product
What is a function $f(x,y)$ s.t. holding x constant at $x=0$ yields $\Gamma(y-1)$, and holding y constant at $y=2$ yields the zeta function?
Hi, is there a name to this lemma? I am trying to find a proof for it https://imgur.com/a/BmXznfM
Thanks!
Yeah, I'm pretty sure that lemma is called "Robert".
His friends call him "Bob", but you should call him "Dr."
Alternative snarky remark: Sure. That lemma is named "1.2.7".
14:02
I'm looking for examples of $f(x,y)$ just in case nobody saw that coming
More seriously, that looks like the Chebyshev inequality to me (in the case where $X$ has mean zero).
game 1 tonight
@geocalc33 The World Series does not start until the Fall, hence your "Game 1" is irrelevant and meaningless. :P
14:21
haha. Rafa into the semi's at the French open
Is that, like, ice hockey or golf or something?
Tennis!
Tennis is the one with the net, right?
You play it in a bikini? on the beach?
Big, round, white ball?
Yes
fine
See, I know sportsballs!
14:39
@XanderHenderson: After marking close vote to a post, does a comment automatically get dropped below the post?
@Koro Not generally, no. But it depends on the reason you cite for closure.
the comment that "Does this answer your question?"
That comment is automatically left when you vote to close a question as a duplicate of another question.
Ah, I see.
14:57
Can I prove AM GM inequality from (a+b)^2?
yes.
@XanderHenderson 'defining' something axiomatically always leaves me wondering if I'm talking about the empty set
@Koro tq
@Steve The proof is $$\Bbb E(|X|^p) = \int_{\Omega} |X|^p d\Bbb P ≥ \int_{|X|\ge \epsilon} |X|^p d\Bbb P \ge \epsilon^p \int_{|X|\ge \epsilon} d \Bbb P = \epsilon^p \Bbb P(|X|\ge \epsilon).$$
@Belucat :-)
15:01
hey all, I'm struggling a bit with problem 2.4.P13 from Horn and Johnson's Matrix Analysis. Below is one part of the exercise:

Suppose that A ∈ Mn and B ∈ Mm have no eigenvalues in common. Consider the linear transformations T1 , T2 : Mn,m → Mn,m defined by T1 (X ) = AX and T2 (X ) = XB. Show that T1 and T2 commute, and deduce from (2.4.8.1) that the eigenvalues of T = T1 − T2 are differences of eigenvalues of T1 and T2 .
how can T1 and T2 have eigenvalues/commute, when m \neq n
$T_1 T_2(X) = T_1 ( XB) = A(XB ) = AXB = (AX)B = T_2(AX)= T_2T_1(X)$
note that $A$ is never multiplied with $B$
aaah, so what should be proven is $T_1 \circ T_2 (X) = T_2\circ T_1(X)$?
@CalvinKhor inorite?
There are rumours of some poor graduate student at my phd institution who managed to build up an entire theory for spaces which satisfied certain properties. During his defense, he was asked for an example. It turned out that the unit circle was the only example of such a space.
(Most of that story is probably apocryphal---seems too awful to be true---but it is the kind of thing which reminds one to always have a few examples handy).
i mean that to me sounds like the supervisor's fault tho @XanderHenderson
@V.S.e.H. yup. And asking for eigenvalues is like asking for the eigenvalues of any linear operator on a finite dimensional vector space (which in this case is a space of matrices)
0
Q: Evaluate the definite integral $\int_0^1 x^b b^x \,dx$.

Aastha ChoudharySince, the question asks to evaluate $\int_0^1 x^b b^x\, dx$. Sharing my thought shots on the same: I multiplied and divided my integrand with $\log b^x$ and afterwards substituted $b^x = t$. So my Integrand reduced to $\int_1^b \frac{(\log t)^n}{(\log b)^{b+1}}\,dt$. This becomes an improper in...

15:12
oh no its this integral again
I will pretend to be away
What is your opinion on close voting of this question?
@CalvinKhor :D
it looks correctly closed to me @Koro
by the way where is the integral from?
hm, is "2.4.8.1" the simultaneous upper-triangularizability of commuting operators? as calvin noted T_1 and T_2 commute even if A and B do not.
@CalvinKhor it seems to have come from one of the booklets of some coaching centre.
:) ty
@leslietownes you are purposely capitalising in a unique pattern!
15:17
@CalvinKhor Thanks. In the post, the OP asked for evaluating the integral (didn't say anything about finding a limit) but from the comments, it seems that they wanted to find limit only.
..oh. Then I'm not so sure, but OP voted for it himself (that's the community vote)
The limit question (which I asked here few days ago) immediately came to my mind when I saw that post and posted the link to that, which the OP said had helped them. So I think that the post getting closed is OK.
@CalvinKhor yeah, that makes sense then, thanks!
15:31
Spivak mentions That the set of natural numbers must have a smallest number except it not being a null set, how can it be possible? if suppose natural numbers were like integers then it wouldn't it possible to find a least member? does he assume natural numbers starts with 1 and extends further in such a case why does he have to worry for it being a null set?
@Belucat I don't know. I don't have a copy of Spivak handy.
He claims set of natural numbers being a null set is the only possible condition where he couldn't find a least number
Do does he assume that the set of natural numbers doesn't have negative numbers in them?
in making such a claim?
Usually, the set of natural numbers is either (a) the set of positive integers or (b) the set of nonnegative integers.
cause he talks about the well ordering principle
@XanderHenderson yep
So Spivak is almost certainly building a system like that.
15:34
Oh so first he concentrates only on positive integers right?
Why does he worry for it to be a null set?
I don't know. I don't have a copy of that text.
it's likely just that usual corner case. he wants to say 'every subset of N has a least element.' which is true, except for the one subset of N that doesn't have any elements.
sometimes people separately distinguish the empty set for no reason (just because it makes people nervous and is a common corner case) but here you really gotta do it. you need elements to have a least element.
just a guess, like xander i do not have the book
Also wouldn't the normal induction do I mean if for a set A P(1) is true and P(k+1) must be proven true whenever p(K) is true
But he says there is another form of induction where P(k+1) would be proven true if and only if p(1) is true and p(K) is true and p(l) where l<k in natural numbers must also be true
Is that right?
Are these 2 really different?
@leslietownes Tq :)!
15:42
@Belucat This appears to be a statement of "strong induction" (or "complete induction"---either term should be Googlable). Weak and strong induction are mathematically equivalent.
Strong induction just gives you more hypotheses to work with (which can make things easier).
Hmm tq
Oh both are just the same right?
That depends on what you mean by "the same".
They are mathematically equivalent approaches, but they are not quite "the same".
How do they differ? @XanderHenderson
They differ in exactly the way you describe.
For weak induction, the induction hypothesis is that $P[k]$ holds. For strong induction, the induction hypothesis is that $P[\ell]$ holds for all $\ell \le k$. In either case, you then show that $P[k+1]$ holds.
in the so called " weak induction" we do consider all the natural number if k=1, k+1 would be 2 and soo on every number is taken into consideration and even for the strong induction we cover every number right?
How do they differ?
15:46
I don't understand.
Mathematical induction is a mathematical proof technique. It is essentially used to prove that a statement P(n) holds for every natural number n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ... ; that is, the overall statement is a sequence of infinitely many cases P(0), P(1), P(2), P(3), ... . Informal metaphors help to explain this technique, such as falling dominoes or climbing a ladder: Mathematical induction proves that we can climb as high as we like on a ladder, by proving that we can climb onto the bottom rung (the basis) and that from each rung we can climb up to the next one (the step). A proof by induction consists...
My analogy would be say few members standing in a line and a secret is passed and every one would pass it to the person next to him induction states if the (k+1)st person knows the secret it is certain for the kth person must know itand that does make sure everyone betweent the first and the kth person would know the secret and hoe does strong induction make the arguments more strong?
How does it differ?
Don't think about the analogy. Look at the definitions.
Oh
I just don't when to use the strong and weak inductions?
The usual process for proving a statement using induction is to first prove that $P[1]$ holds, then show that if $P[k]$ holds, then $P[k+1]$ holds.
yeah
15:51
For strong induction, first prove that $P[1]$ holds, then prove that if $P[\ell]$ holds for all $\ell \le k$, then $P[k+1]$ holds.
Strong induction assumes a stronger induction hypothesis.
Oh Ok
However, the two forms of induction are mathematically equivalent, which means that anything which can be proved by one can be proved by the other.
Yep
Yeah the definitions sound different but they equivalent!
The definitions are different. The two forms of induction are different. But they are mathematically equivalent.
Yeah I think I got it must think about the definitions!
@XanderHenderson Thank you soo much :)
15:55
Let $Q[k]$ be that $P[j]$ is true for $1\le j\le k$...
Applying weak induction to $Q$ is the same as strong induction to $P$
yeah
 
5 hours later…
20:57
@Ted: it's quiet in here...
it was quiet in here.
Ssshhhh …
🤭
21:59
hello
I concocted a neat function $$ I(x,y)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\bigg|\int_0^1 \frac{1}{t~(\log t)^y}\exp\bigg(\frac{n^x}{\log t}\bigg) ~dt~\bigg|$$
$I(0,y)=\Gamma(y-1)$
$I(x,n)$ for $n=2,3,4,...$ are zeta functions
but I'm not sure about a closed form for $I(x,y)$
22:16
And summing you get: $$ \sum_{k=1}^\infty I(x,k)=\sum_{k=1}^\infty \sum_{n=1}^\infty \bigg|\int_0^1\frac{1}{t~(\log t)^k}\exp\bigg(\frac{n^x}{\log t}\bigg) ~dt~\bigg|=\zeta(x)+\zeta(2x)+2\zeta(3x)\cdot\cdot~\cdot$$
which looks odly familiar to: $$\varphi(x)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty (e^{-n^{-x}}-1)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n!}\zeta(nx)$$
23:16
@CalvinKhor I see, thanks!

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