I apologize for coming here with the same question again. The answerer posted their answer, which isn't something I was looking for, but I think more editing would just overflow my post. I wasn't precise enough in the very end of my post. So, I'll leave a link here and ask, if I may:
Suppose $C,E\subseteq\Bbb R^2$ are bounded sets s. t. $C\cap E$ is of Lebesgue measure $0$, but has no Jordan measure, $f:C\cup E\to\Bbb R$ is integrable on both $C$ and $E,$ but fails to be integrable on $C\cap E$ (due to it not having Jordan measure? ). Is there any example caused by this situation?