Hello, I would appreciate a hint if possible. I have tried to replicate the above technique by letting $qI = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{q\cos(x)}{p\sin(x) + q\cos(x)} dx$ and $pJ = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{p\sin(x)}{p\sin(x) + q\cos(x)} dx$. This results in $qI + pJ = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\frac{q\cos(x) + p\sin(x)}{p\sin(x) + q\cos(x)}dx = \frac{\pi}{2}$.
However, I am having trouble on this integral $qI - pJ = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\frac{q\cos(x) - p\sin(x)}{p\sin(x) + q\cos(x)}dx$