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17:06
@TedShifrin btw ted do past professors do research for fun?
say when there's no more pressure to publish or anything like that
> Determine the number of 5 card combinations out of a deck of 52 cards if there is exactly one ace in each combination.
What's wrong in $\dfrac{4×48×47×46×45}{5!}$?
@Wolgwang why $5!$ ?
Hey! can someone give hint to this problem?codeforces.com/contest/406/problem/B
@Wolgwang do a couple of tree branches to figure out why you don't need to divide
Because we are choosing 5 cards and order doesn't matter so we subtract 5!
17:14
its not a live contest
@shintuku Tree branches?
he's asking you to smoke marijuana before you finish your problem
2
(P.S. I know $\binom{4}{1}\times \binom{48}{4}$ gives right answer)
@Wolgwang think about what $4 \times 48 \times 47 \times 46 \times 45$ represents
@Wolgwang
17:19
@LeakyNun Total number of arrangements.
each juncture corresponds to a card choice. you start with four initial junctures. choosing a path in there, you have 48 new junctures, etc.
@Wolgwang of?
@LeakyNun Of 5 cards (?)
how did you obtain the expression $4 \times 48 \times 47 \times 46 \times 45$?
what does the $4$ mean? what does $48 \times 47 \times 46 \times 45$ mean?
Fundamental principle of counting... There are total 5 cards : _×_×_×_×_ In 1st card slot, 4 ace cards can be inserted and now there are 48 remaining cards which will be inserted in 2nd,3rd,4th,5th slot.
17:23
wolg if you order the ace first and don't have an ace anywhere else, you aren't multiply counting hands that have the ace in other positions when you compute that product
@Wolgwang so now think back about $5!$
you claimed that you have $5!$ because the order doesn't matter
is it true that the order doesn't matter?
@LeakyNun Yes
Oct 3 '15 at 20:11, by Ted Shifrin
@Karim: At the end you divide by $k!$ because you don't care about the order of those $k$ things chosen.
@Wolgwang but the ace card needs to be on the first slot
@LeakyNun Why? :-/
that's what the $4$ means
maybe it would help to think about "what" you're counting, every time you write an expression
so the set you're required to count is "the 5-card combinations with exactly one ace"
you have first transformed it to "5-card combinations where the first card is an ace and the rest of the cards are not"
and for that, you first count the 5-card arrangement where the first card is an ace and the rest of the cards are not
which gives you $4 \times 48 \times 47 \times 46 \times 45$
17:28
@leslietownes @LeakyNun Ohk I think I have got it!
and the difference between the second set and the third set is $4!$, not $5!$
and this highlights the importance of not blindly applying formulas, but thinking about what each term means
So choosing cards with an ace is a two steps process.
Counting is tricky!
@Wolgwang Why did you quote me from 6 years ago?!
Kentucky is all tornadoed …
17:33
I saw that... along with 5 other states
@robjohn huh?
it is time we develop terraforming
Doubtless a libtard plot.
@TedShifrin Because that was relevant to the discussion and I was doing something around those lines. :)
@Wolgwang you can also use $\binom{48}{4}$.
17:36
any hints please,I literally can't think anything. codeforces.com/contest/406/problem/B (not a live contest)
@robjohn Wait.... you mean they misspelled "meth" to "math"?
@Prithubiswas you were commenting on the difference between "math" and "meth"
@Prithubiswas yes
That’s an old story …
@Wolgwang Ted, Yes I had tried that first.
@TedShifrin It can still be apt
17:38
It took me an embarrassingly long time to see the joke.
@robjohn or inapt.
or inept
is there a site or network-specific rule for questions about primary material that is only provided in a language other than english? the other day someone posted a question in mandarin, and i thought about voting to close but didn't see applicable ground. if there is one, it might be buried in site policies and not in the summaries that are provided on a close vote.
"here's some link to some journal article, click through and figure out what i'm asking about" already seems wrong even if the journal article is in english, but it seems particularly wrong if the SE question is in english but i need to know russian to understand what i'm being directed to.
for my purposes, the link might as well not be there at all
@leslietownes lol
do you have a link?
17:52
@leslie There is an English version, but it's accessible only with library privileges. The whole interaction was frustrating, but I get all the blame. It's an imposition for him to tell me the definition and clarify the main issue I asked (but apparently he didn't understand that it was a question, repeatedly).
Look at my previous link, @Leaky.
I probably once knew just enough Russian to stumble through the article, but it certainly is not worth my trouble given all this.
leaky: for the thing in mandarin, no. for ted's question, the link has downloadable russian (through another link) but no public english version.
In general, MSE users are told to make their questions self-contained. It's not unreasonable to provide definitions, especially if there's ambiguity. I sort of want to think about the question, but my inner leslie says I shouldn't waste the time.
this strikes me as weird for the separate reason you often identify, ted. if a person isn't paying attention to definitions, why are they knee deep in this article in the first place.
what was it in the universe that brought them there.
It's too much trouble to make the question a good question. Just help me anyway.
"but what is the def---" "THERE'S NO TIME!!"
17:58
🍭🍬🥜🍰
It's related to a fundamental result in elementary differential geometry, I think, but it's not quite the standard setting. If you have a surface with $K=0$ but no umbilic points (i.e., no planar points), then it must be a ruled surface with the tangent plane constant along rulings.
@leslie Despite the attack from the other person, I do realize that my inference was stated not as a question but as an implied "confirm, please?" ... and for a non-native speaker, for example, that might be confusing. I think it was "confusing" for native speakers as well.
i dunno, it fairly clearly wasn't an answer (if for no other reason than, uh, it wasn't posted as one?), and it makes sense as an elaboration of the previous explicit question. i think there's an expectations barrier, as opposed to a language barrier.
331
A: Do posts have to be in English on Stack Exchange?

mmcdole tl;dr: Unless you're posting on a language-related site (e.g. French Language) or a site where all questions are expected to be in a different language (e.g. Stack Overflow in Spanish), yes, all posts are expected to be in English. A special case exists for the Russian language; see below. What...

good to know. on math.se it's not that acute of an issue. if someone states their problem simply and clearly enough, and gets the stuff in math mode right, one can often figure it out, and who really cares. but context-dispositive cites to external sources in other languages, oof.
@Wolgwang It's a fact of life that many journal articles (and textbooks) are in different languages. There's nothing wrong with that. But good form is not to expect me to read pages of an article in order to understand or answer a question here.
The other issue is paywalls. When I say I cannot access the article, don't tell me how to do it when it evidently doesn't work. (Many, but not all, users here have access to university libraries. I no longer do.)
18:12
yeah. people who have institutional access can't always tell that there is a paywall for the rest of us.
18:44
I'm having trouble understanding the double centralizer. If $M$ is a left $R$-module, the "centralizer" is $\mathrm{End}_R(M) = \{T : M \to M : T(rx) = r T(x)\, \forall r \in R, x \in M\}$, basically because of $"T r = r T$. One can reformulate this as follows, I suppose: consider $m_r : M \to M$, $x \mapsto r x$, multiplication on the left. Then $T \circ m_r = m_r \circ T$.
Then they consider $\mathrm{End}_R(M)^{op}$, which is the same ring as $\mathrm{End}_R(M)$ but multiplication happening in reverse order.
$M$ is a left $\mathrm{End}_R(M)$-module by $T \cdot x = T(x)$ as $(T_1 T_2) \cdot x = T_1(T_2(x)) = T_1 \cdot (T_2 \cdot x)$. So now consider it as a right $\mathrm{End}_R(M)^{op}$-module, where $S^{op}$ is the same ring as $S$ but multiplication happening in reverse order
This makes sense: $x \cdot (T_2 T_1) = (T_1 \circ T_2)x = T_1(T_2(x)) = (x \cdot T_2) \cdot T_1$.
The "double centralizer" is $\mathrm{End}_{\mathrm{End}_R(M)^{op}}(M)$
chokes
Yeah
It's nuts
So let's see, if $f : M \to M$ is in the double centralizer what should it satisfy? $f(m \cdot T) = f(m) \cdot T$ for any $T \in \mathrm{End}_R(M)^{op} = \mathrm{End}_R(M)$. Which is to say $f(T(m)) = T(f(m))$.
Why is this not the same as $\mathrm{End}_{\mathrm{End}_R(M)}(M)$?
Shouldn't you get the property on both sides of $T$?
Which property?
$f(T\cdot m)$ as well?
18:54
Why?
Isn't the point of op to turn it into a right-module?
Where is @Thor when we need him?
I don't know why we took the op. That is, what's the difference between $\mathrm{End}_{\mathrm{End}_R(M)}(M)$ and $\mathrm{End}_{\mathrm{End}_R(M)^{op}}(M)$?
Possibly, the point may be that if $R$ is treated as a left $R$-module, then $\mathrm{End}_R(R) \cong R^{op}$.
@BalarkaSen none
since inversion is an isomorphism between these two rings identifying those two module structures
sorry, the above is mistaken, you don't need the inversion
it's just literally the same thing
$R$-linearity and $R^{op}$-linearity, I mean
19:11
Yeah
They go on to write the ring homomorphism $R \to \mathrm{End}_{\mathrm{End}_R(M)^{op}}(M)$
$r \mapsto m_r$ where $m_r(x) = rx$
$m_r : M \to M$ is a $\mathrm{End}_R(M)^{op}$-module homomorphism... is this where op is needed or what?
$m_r(x \cdot T) = m_r(T(x)) = r T(x) = T(rx) = m_r(x) \cdot T$
Seems to work fine without the op??
well, op or not, the set is the same, and the $R$-linear structure on that set is the same as well
I guess the difference in whether you want that double centralizer to be an End_R(M) or an End_R(M)^op module itself?
i mean, idk this stuff either, to be clear
Yeah I am totally bewlidered by why they use op
To be op-pressive.
@leslie Here is a good one for you. Any guesses?
One second, let's try $M = R$, left-module over $R$ itself. Then $\mathrm{End}_R(R)$ acts on $M$ by $T \cdot m = T(m)$.
Identify $R^{op} \cong \mathrm{End}_R(R)$, $x^{op} \mapsto (m \mapsto xm)$.
This is totally confusing
Elements of $\mathrm{End}_R(R)$ are of the form $\mathrm{mult}_x$. $\mathrm{mult}_{xy} = \mathrm{mult}_x \circ \mathrm{mult}_y$. What's the big deal?
$\mathrm{End}_R(R)$ is just $R$
No ops
Is my algebra professor seriously using a different convention for the ring structure on End_R(M)?
No one in their right mind would switch the order of multiplication
Maybe he denotes $ST$ to be $S$ followed by $T$, i.e., $T \circ S$
That would be insane
19:31
@BalarkaSen isn't this the wrong way around
Yeah
He says in the notes that $\mathrm{End}_R(R) \cong R^{op}$
I think he's using the wrong convention
@BalarkaSen If you use this then $R^{op}$ is correct
does he also write $(x)f$ for the value of a function
some algebraists in the 50s or so literally did this
Wait, but even the wiki page does this
In the branch of abstract algebra called ring theory, the double centralizer theorem can refer to any one of several similar results. These results concern the centralizer of a subring S of a ring R, denoted CR(S) in this article. It is always the case that CR(CR(S)) contains S, and a double centralizer theorem gives conditions on R and S that guarantee that CR(CR(S)) is equal to S. == Statements of the theorem == === Motivation === The centralizer of a subring S of R given by C R (...
See "motivation" where they keep fidgeting with left and right
Let M be a right R module and give M the natural left E-module structure, where E is End(M), the ring of endomorphisms of the abelian group M. Every map mr given by mr(x) = xr creates an additive endomorphism of M, that is, an element of E.
It's a right E-module, why on earth should it be a left E-module?
19:34
you apply functions from the left
Even past that, @Thor. Herstein's eponymous book is full of that. I think it was the 60s.
but I don't get why they start with a right $R$-module
In wiki's convention, (m)(T o S) = T(S(m)) = S(m) o T = (m o S) o T
I just switched my hands, I'll play their game. Even then their convention is garbage
They think TS is T followed by S
Idiots
It is with the right action of functions convention.
at some point we should start distinguishing between conventions and mistakes
19:38
The double centralizer of a left $R$-module $M$ are just all self-maps of $M$ which commute with all left $R$-module endomorphisms of $M$.
@Thor @Astyx: Are you familiar with the "word" càdlàg? It just appeared on main.
Apparently it's a French acronym, but I've never in my life seen that before.
that's some probability thing, isn't it?
some semi-continuous whatever function
Yeah, cdf's are cadlags
I'm just stunned.
OK, let $R$ be a simple ring and $I \subset R$ be a nonzero left-ideal. The claim is $R \to D(I)$ is an isomorphism, where $D(I)$ is my short hand for double centralizer of $I$ considered as a left $R$-module.
It's injective by simplicity. Need to prove surjective.
$D(I)$ consists of all maps $\phi : I \to I$ such that $\phi$ commutes with all left $R$-module endo's $T : I \to I$
19:42
ok, I feel stupid right now
but I figured out part of the issue
the academie francaise should dispatch a team of armed people by helicopter who rappel down and stop people from writing cadlag.
@BalarkaSen this is actually correct
i would have thought it was an untranslatable element of one of copper's jokes, although i guess the accents go the wrong way for that
you need to send an element to right multiplication by it, not left multiplication
left multiplication is not linear if your module structure is left too
in the non-commutative case
19:46
so if $R$ is a left $R$-module, you need $R\rightarrow\mathrm{End}_R(R),r\mapsto(x\mapsto xr)$ to get a well-defined map, and this reverses multiplication
this shit is always so awful
the sign errors of category theory
But for any left $R$-module $M$, $M$ is a left $\mathrm{End}_R(M)$-module, or no?
$T \cdot m = T(m)$.
yes, that works tautologically
Take $M = R$. Explain me how $R$ is a left $R^{op}$-module
I am very confused
a left $R$-module structure on an abelian group $M$ is the same thing as a ring hom $R\rightarrow\mathrm{End}_{\mathbb{Z}}(M)$. in this case, that's just the inclusion $\mathrm{End}_R(M)\subseteq\mathrm{End}_{\mathbb{Z}}(M)$
@BalarkaSen ok, let's unwind the definition
take $x\in R$ (the module) and $r\in R^{op}$ (the scalar). then $r$ corresponds to the element $(x\mapsto xr)$ in $\mathrm{End}_R(M)$, which acts on $x$ by mapping it to $xr$
the left $R^{op}$-module structure is just right multiplication
19:50
it corresponds to the tautological right $R$-module structure of $R$
but I'm still not quite sure what this tells us about the general case
@Thorgott This is what I was suggesting earlier to @Balarka. But this stuff intimidates me.
@leslie Is munchkin going to the duck pond today?
we just got back!
Ah, I missed it :(
yeah, it's intimidating in the same way signs are
no mathematician can ever escape the terror these things exude
@TedShifrin One hit around 30 miles from me. Heck of a night.
19:57
@leslietownes It has been a long time since we've been to our duck pond. I should see if I can convince the park group to go there this weekend.
@BalarkaSen Let me see if I can do this without paying attention to right vs left. So $D(I)$ is basically self-maps of $I$ which commute with all left $R$-module endo's $I \to I$. A particular class of left $R$-module endo's are $\mathcal{R}_a : I \to I, x \mapsto x a$, right multiplication by elements of $a \in I$. $\phi \circ \mathcal{R}_a = \mathcal{R}_a \circ \phi$ implies $\phi(xa) = \phi(x)a$ for all $x \in R, a \in I$.
I'm glad you're OK, @Fargle.
there was almost nobody at the park today. all of the folks that play soccer and other outdoor sports appear to have packed it in for the season.
Me too.
@Fargle was the weather scary near you?
19:59
most of the herons were on a little island in the pond instead of their usual perches closer up, which was disappointing.
it's the island in the middle of our pond that is the good spot for seeing the ducks. The geese wander around the grass away from the pond.
So if $\Phi : R \to D(I)$ is the map $\Phi(x)(i) = x i$, then, $\phi \circ \Phi(x) = \Phi(\phi(x))$.
@robjohn Somewhat; it could have been worse. I still remember the tornado that hit town when I was around 3 years old; it was still some few miles from us, but we could hear it from our basement. This time it was just thunder and lightning and some big gusts.
@Fargle I have heard dust devils in the high desert near us, and it sounds like a freight train passing by. Then the awning from the house down the road lands in your yard.
Here $x \in I$, which means $\phi \Phi(I) \subseteq \Phi(I)$, for all $\phi \in D(I)$. So $D(I) \Phi(I) \subseteq \Phi(I)$
$D(I) = D(I) \Phi(R) = D(I) \Phi(I) \Phi(R) \subseteq \Phi(I) \Phi(R) = \Phi(R)$
Using $IR = R$ repeatedly, which is true since $IR$ is 2-sided and $R$ is simple
20:04
@TedShifrin it has a wikipedia article, but first time I hear of it
continue à droite, limite à gauche
Yeah, someone else found the wiki. Crazy!! How did your pizza turn out?
I should have put the dough in the refrigerator, it had fallen back down the next day
What's an example of a semisimple ring which is not Artinian by the way? Sounds like a myth.
Yeah, if you don't use it within two hours, you should refrigerate/freeze.
20:06
Hope all of you are keeping fine and the covid situations are getting better in your regions.
still edible, but I'm a bit disappointed, especially since it looked like it swelled (?) a lot
I was hoping the cold temperature of incoming winter would be enough
rose (past of rise)
@Astyx had risen
oh right
@BalarkaSen There's no such thing
20:07
@BuddhiniAngelika Thanks, and same to you. Looks like it's all going to get worse again.
I google translated "la pâte gonfle" because all I could think about was "inflate"
Comme le pneu? :)
@BalarkaSen it's nice that you can carry on a conversation with yourself when no one else can ;-)
Thor conversed quite conversantly, @robjohn.
Just trying to keep the math alive in this chat
With a personal agenda, namely, I should learn this stuff for exams
20:10
When we are asked to find the modulus and argument of a complex number, say $z=3+4i$ for finding argument is it correct to write as a) $arg(z)= tan^{-1}(4/3)$ OR b)$arg(z) = tan^{-1}(4/3)+2n \pi$ OR c)$Arg(z)=tan^{-1}(4/3)$?
Eventhough Arg(z) is the principle value of the argument in some examples I've seen that they take just that as the answer
buddhini, depends on who is asking (might be worth going back a few pages if it's a textbook). to me, 'the' argument suggests one answer, and if a choice of 'prinicipal' argument has been made somewhere, i would use that.
And in some cases they just say arg(z)=tan^{-1}(4/3) without the 2n \pi
As in answer a)
@TedShifrin Thanks @TedShifrin Yes in our country too, its the same
it really depends on context. if they've distinguished notationally between arg as one chosen value and arg as a set (e.g. via "arg" and "Arg") i would follow the notational cue. if they aren't consistent about their own notation, maybe a question for whoever prepared the notes.
i wouldn't think it would matter at all on human-graded work, but if this were in a multiple-choice setting, you'd basically have to ask somebody to know what was expected.
@leslietownes Hmm. I'm not particularly using a text book, but I want to make a not so I've referred many web sites and notes.
If it's for a specific test, ask the one who's making you take the test. If it's for your own understanding, there is no standard rule, and all that matters is that you understand what's going on, how you write it is up to you. I've almost never seen these functions used in practice
20:17
what astyx says. the fact that you've noticed the concept is enough for your own understanding.
Okay, thanks a lot @leslietownes and @Astyx so if the idea of the principle argument is also mentioned then I'd better write with the 2n \pi as in the above answer b), I guess
It's not for a test, but I want to give my note to someone to refer :)
i wouldn't assume that "principal value of ___" means the same thing to all people, for example. it's worth spelling out if you're using it in front of an unfamiliar audience. there is a whole lot of consistency among different sources for a lot of this stuff, but a commonly made arbitrary choice is still an arbitrary choice.
But when I was learning we were given as in answer a)
But I felt doubtful about it
Unless they say principal value of the argument, I would say that all the possible answers should be given. (Non-principal) argument is definitely multi-valued.
And I'm unable to ask from my teacher because it's some time ago and now I'm not in contact..
20:23
The correct pedantic way to write it would be $\tan^{-1}(4/3) + 2\pi\mathbb N$ because the argument really lives in the quotient $\mathbb R/\mathbb 2\pi \mathbb N$
@TedShifrin Okay thanks @TedShifrin
@Astyx Thank you very much @Astyx :)
but no one does that, people usually just say "let $\theta\in \mathbb R$ be such that $z=|z|e^{i\theta}$
What is the equation for this graph? It seems like it should be $r = (1 + f)^.6 * (1 - f)^.4$ based on the parameters provided and the formula provided further down on the Kelly Criterion Wikipedia page, but it is certainly not.
and it's not presented as such usually because people who see the argument for the first time are probably not accustomed to quotients, and people who know quotients probably already know about the argument enough to not have to consider it as a function anyway
20:29
@user10478 it looks like that function minus $1$
Interesting, it does, doesn't it.
I guess that $-1$ just gets omitted from some calculations ultimately aimed at finding the maximum because the derivative would eat it.
a lot of stuff on kelly betting has this kind of stuff in it. the page's r is a 'geometric' growth rate, where r = 1 would correspond to no growth. they're plotting how this compares against that baseline. maybe this isn't consistent with how they do it elsewhere on the page.
the various pieces of the page and that picture could conceivably have been written by different people at different times.
Yeah, like the more you think about it, the more it gets in the way and complicates things.
@BalarkaSen what's the motivation of this?
Then, there is another question that: We can prove rules like $arg(z_1 z_2) = arg(z_1) + arg(z_2)$ for any two complex numbers $z_1, z_2$. Then, if $z_1 =r_a (cos(\theta_1)+i sin(\theta_1)$, then we take arg(z_1) = \theta_1$. If I represent arg(z) by showing all the values as in answer b) by adding 2n \pi, then should I write $Arg$ when proving these rules?
Or is it better to say that when I prove for one value of arg(z_1) (and arg(z_2)) then it applies the same for all values of arg(z_1) in the same way?
20:43
It’s false if you use just one value.
Generally, for these type of properties of arguments of complex numbers, they always write arg. then how should I justify that?
Do you see an example with principal value only that is false?
@TedShifrin Hmm no @TedShifrin
There, then eventhough we write as arg(z_1) = theta_1, (showing only one value, without the 2n \pi), we should understand that it represents all the values, as the (non-principle) argument is supposed to represent?
buddhini, whatever you do, don't adopt someone else's confusing notation because you think it is a convention. this doesn't sound right.
it's reasonably common to define "arg" so that it is a "single-valued" function, but then you definitely don't have that identity for all z_1 and z_2; you have it for a set of z_1 and z_2 defined by conditions relating to the choice you made to define "arg"
@LeakyNun You can prove Artin-Wedderburn with this double centralizer machinery. Suppose $R$ has a minimal left ideal $I$, then double centralizer says $R \cong D(I)$. Now $D(I) = \mathrm{End}_{\mathrm{End}_R(I)^{op}}(I)$; note $\Bbb D := \mathrm{End}_R(I)$ is a division ring as $I$ is a simple left $I$-module and moreover $I$ is a finite-dimensional $\Bbb D$-module.
This shows $R \cong M_n(\Bbb D)$.
20:54
@leslietownes Yes, thanks @leslietownes I'm bit confused. So I'm trying to rewrite everything using according to the definitions. Then arg should represent multiple values. But I don't understand how to write when proving the properties of arguments, like the one mentioned above.
OK, this is very much about what the definitions are. what is "arg(z)." is it a set, or a single number. if it's a set, the + in "arg(z_1) + arg(z_2)" is a slightly different kind of + then the + in z_1 + z_2, with z_1 and z_2 complex numbers.
If $R$ is semisimple then as a left $R$-module it is a sum of finitely many minimal left-ideals $I_1, \cdots, I_n$.
Then A-W follows
@leslietownes I'm not very clear about "you have it for a set of z_1 and z_2 defined by conditions " @leslietownes
@leslietownes Oh, Okay I think I get it now :)
if arg( ) is a set, then arg(z_1 z_2) = arg(z_1) + arg(z_2) is a statement about sets of complex numbers (and the + on the right is not the addition of complex numbers). set equalities are proved differently from equalities of numbers. a standard format of proving A = B with A, B sets is to prove that A is a subset of B, and then to prove that B is a subset of A.
@LeakyNun Actually you need simplicity of $R$ to argue $I$ is an f.d. $\Bbb D$-module above.
$\Bbb D^{op}$-module, whatever
20:59
Hmm, yeah, so the proof I meant earlier was for a single valued arg
But you need it even before that for $R \cong D(I)$, of course.
Thank you very much @leslietownes :)
this is why some books try to expressly avoid or suppress multi-valued or set-valued anything for as long as possible. leaving them in the odd position of doing things like having to explain why the argument principle is called the argument principle.
Hmm, Okay :) :)
I hate the phrase "mutli-valued function". :(
21:05
Many many thanks again!
One of my least favorite things about Stein/Stakarchi was the fact that the discussion of multivalued log was about halfway through the book.
i hate the phrase "single-valued" function for the same reason.
Many thanks to every one!! :)
@leslietownes Indeed. A function is defined by the property that if $(x,y_1), (x,y_2) \in f$, then $y_1 = y_2$.
ahlfors at least apologizes for it and refers to it as a "pleonastic term." triple word score, lars.
21:06
"set-valued function" is fine, though.
We are allowed to progress past precalculus level mathematics.
OK, we shall henceforth refer to log as an analytic/holomorphic relation, no longer using the word function.
@TedShifrin Heh.
multi-valued function is just a bad way of saying "function defined on a branched covering" or something along those lines
21:08
Branched coverings are generally a different animal.
But, yes, on a Riemann surface ... will do.
@TedShifrin Yes, I was just typing something like this.
Let $f : \Bbb C \to \Bbb C$ be a meromorphic multifunction.
ahlfors's introduction of arg leaves a little to be desired. in the first chapter he implicitly treats arg as a function to a quotient space, by saying that arg(z_1 z_2) = arg(z_1) + arg(z_2) is "an equation of angles and not numbers." but if you weren't raised in his generation, good luck figuring that out on the first exposure.
It is up to the reader to judge, on the basis of careful consideration, what the domain and codomain actually are.
it doesn't confuse me, but i wouldn't wanna teach from that.
21:15
i like a nice green tea made from arg leaves
i'm having some green tea now, it's great.
nice healthy guys breakfast of bacon, fried tomatoes, fried eggs & hash browns
calls paramedics for copper
i was gonna say, follow that by a trip to the hospital and you might be back in time for lunch.
@TedShifrin its strange, since my hip thing my diet has disimproved significantly.
21:17
i'll have mine with a side of defibrillator, please.
surprisingly we have essentially no heart disease in the family.
my side, i mean.
snacks project
onto a linear variety?
that's an idea. someone who dispenses snacks instead of smacks.
leslie townes 1000 page long manuscript dedicated to ted shifrin "pursuing smacks"
21:20
a la recherche du snacks perdu
snacks for smacks
des snacks perdus
hores douvre
to go lower than any man before...
whores devoirs?
21:32
:-). the connection between spelling & pronunciation in French is always a little tenuous for me.
well, hors d'oeuvre means literally outside the work (or main opus)
like when i bring a big bag of flamin' hot cheetos in as my appetizer before a main course at an expensive french restaurant
yeah, like that
Hm. If $A$ is central simple and $B$ is simple, then $A \otimes_k B$ is simple. How do I prove this?
"Simple Simon met a pieman // Going to the fair ..."
21:39
Try the 2-sided ideal generated by $a \otimes b$. Then $AaA = A$, and $BbB = B$
So stuff like $1 \otimes b$ and $a \otimes 1$ for all $a \in A, b \in B$ belongs, becomes the full ring
always found that rhyme depressing
I've forgotten all the rest of it.
Hey all, I'm stumped with my homework and I was hoping someone could clarify what I am supposed to use.

I'm taking a Statistics Class, and I'm working with the Central Limit Theorem.

My current issue, is that I have both the Population Standard Deviation, and my Sample Deviation. And I'm unsure which one I am supposed to use.
This sounds like a question for your classmates or instructor.
21:59
does anyone want to help me prove that if $f:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ is a function so that $f^{-1}(A)$ is open for all open sets $A$, then $f$ is continuous?
derivative: what definition of 'continuous' are you using? epsilon-delta? sequential convergence of f(x_n) for convergent sequences (x_n)? my gut feeling is that either should be on math.se somewhere.
epsilon-delta
I searched for it but I only found the opposite direction, which was easy to prove
Didn't we talk about this a week ago?
maybe you did but not with me
It was in this chat. Taking $A$ to be a very specific ball of very specific radius.
22:02
okay I tried a bunch of balls with a bunch of radii but none of them worked
math.stackexchange.com/questions/2675843/… has the relevant ideas in some form. it does use the notion of 'neighborhood' which might be a slight twist on open set. but the idea is there.
Write down the precise statement you're trying to prove.
math.stackexchange.com/questions/1752871/… is another one without neighborhoods.
you mean that as a rhetorical device or do you actually want me to do that in the chat?
22:03
i'll stop dumping links.
Since you asked us for help, I figured you should tell us the precise statement you are aiming to prove.
okay. If $f:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ is such that if $A$ is open then $f^{-1}(A)$ is open then $\lim_{x\to t}f(x)=f(t)$ for all $t\in\mathbb R$
Write the precise $\delta$-$\epsilon$ statement.
for all $\epsilon>0$ there exists $\delta>0$ so that $|x-t|<\delta$ implies $|f(x)-f(t)|<\epsilon$
So now let's discuss what open set $A$ is sitting in that sentence so that $f^{-1}(A)$ might be relevant.
It might be that your choice of letters makes it less obvious what is fixed and what is varying.
22:09
well the obvious choice was $A=B_\delta(x)$ or so I thought, because I couldn't get it to work
No. If you're going to take the inverse image under $f$, where should this open set live? In the domain or in the range?
And my worry that you don't know who is constant and who is variable is a valid worry. So you'd better verbalize that. In your definition sentence, who is fixed and who is varying?
$t$ is fixed, $x$ is varying
also $\epsilon$ is fixed and we need to choose $\delta$ as a function of it
OK, so any ball you choose needs to be centered at a fixed point, not a variable point. Now go back to my first question there. If you're going to take inverse image under $f$, where should you be?
in the range? Then maybe $A=B_\epsilon(f(t))$?
Perfect.
22:15
okay, I'll see if I finish from here thanks
Good. Just remember to think through things like this, though. This should be a method for you.
 
2 hours later…
23:54
Hi! Does the maximizer of this function converge?
$f_n(x) = n x \exp(-n x ^2)$

looks like this: https://i.imgur.com/L61XZlt.png
i would say yes it does, "from right to left"
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