Okay, Xander. Why should that have a name? Because if $(n \gt 3) \wedge (3 \gt 2)$ are two propositions, then the only thing you'd ever conclude from those two, assuming that $n, 3, 2, \lt$ are defined in the logical context, would be $(n \gt 2)$
It should have a name sort of like "canonical conclusion"
There's your example and intuitively a reason would be for the sake of the computers having to do long proof-theoretic / type-theoretic computations.
You can't because we make a definition suitable for us, and that would mean $(2 \gt 1)$ is not in the logical context, nor in our given list of input props
this might have some applicability in reasoning specific to statements in one or two variables about a linear ordering. i don't see it having general applicability to 'logic'
one of the confusing things about math for a lot of people is that many textbook statements, including statements in the middle of proofs, are often not the optimal deduction from what is assumed. they are shaped by what is known and what is easy to prove from what is known, which might not be the logical limit.
anyway for a short answer to your question i don't know that this concept has a name. i think xander's comments and my own put pressure on whether this is a well defined concept at all. it seems to me that in some restricted universe, short of all logic, it could be well defined.
i think this could be a well defined concept, ask user21820 in the logic chatroom
when you build a first order system of logic, you define a symbol set and a syntax on it, and these limit the possible conclusions when you associate the semantics to them
Oh! I didn't read the box correctly. In big print, it says "Enough for all 8 nights of Channukah", but elsewhere on the box, it says "45 candles". They gave me an extra. Hrm.
@DanDonnelly Not at all, not in any way. I'm an average user. I'm from the planet Zolithia, entrusted to better understand earthlings! ;-). No, just a meager user on this site. lol :) You did nothing wrong. I just stated my request, and not just to you, mind you. But, hey, seriously, you're good to go.
I trust that you're not a double agent from Zolithia sent here to teach us mathematics, but cleverly hide the anti-gravity math, so that we're stuck on Earth.
Ok, now I'm trying to show that $(\infty, 0]$ and $(0, 4]$ are numerically equivalent. Just from looking at them, I'm pretty sure both of these sets form a bijection with $\mathbb R$. So I will just show that, and thus they will be equivalent (numerically). I can't think of a simpler way.
yeah, they are. if you play your cards right you can even find explicit formulas for your bijections with R and compose them to get an explicit formula. but that approach sounds solid.
$1/x$ gives a bijection between $[1, \infty)$ and $(0,1]$. variations on that theme, perhaps.
people goof on the few weeks of precalculus, or whatever class it is, where the study is on how various operations transform domains and ranges of functions, and how to picture them. but the usefulness of that information never really goes away.
that might be the most useful and most underappreciated aspect of precalculus, or whatever class that was. i don't think i saw it before then.
i'll begin to play the game. 4/x happens to implement a bijection between $[1, \infty)$ and $(0, 4]$. 4/(x+1) happens to implement a bijection between $[0, \infty)$ and $(0, 4]$. i haven't proved these statements but they are easy to verify and we are one transformation away from getting that idea to work.
$e^x$ implements a bijection between $(-\infty, 0]$ and $(0, 1]$. a wealth of opportunities there. although depending on the class, maybe nobody knows what $e^x$ is yet.
i mean that if you restrict $e^x$, sometimes thought of as a function on all of $\mathbb{R}$, to being regarded just as a function on $(-\infty, 0]$, its image is $(0,1]$, and it is a bijection between those two sets.
but proving that might be harder than proving similar properties of another function. the earlier example hints at rational functions (quotients of polynomials) being able to get the job done.
we went up to cambridge for a day to visit a math friend. i went through one of the buildings and changed the signs on a few chalkboards where people had written DO NOT ERASE.
my sister works mostly in restaurants, she was out of work for most of 2020 and the start of 21. she has a few jobs now. there will always be restaurants.
haha you are a patent attorney's worst nightmare. if we were suing on this, the client would retain you as a 'consultant' just to keep you from saying that.
vector [a,b,c,d]->[b,c,d,a] is a linear transformation right? I can't seem to remember enough to google what I need to remember how to make a matrix for this
I realized that there is "undo" option in iphone, which works if you shake the phone a little to left and right in case you want to undo a message accidentally deleted. :)
How big can the error be: Instead of using the binomial coefficient to calc probability of something happening over x tries, simply multiply by tries. Of course with reason, as it is obvious that the chance that I throw heads in 2 tries is not 100% ;)
probability of hitting at least once in n tries with p probability of success is 1 - (1-p)^n. this is np + higher order terms in p, with coefficients that can grow large in front of them, and with the number of terms also growing with n.
if p is tiny and n is not too big, maybe not that different from np.
i wasn't computing any expected value. just the probability of, if you like, flipping at least one heads in n independent tosses, if the coin flips heads with probability p.
Well, we know that:
$$\text{C}=\frac{\text{Q}}{\text{V}}\tag1$$
We also know that the voltage and charge are dependent on time, so:
$$\text{Q}\left(t\right)=\text{C}\cdot\text{V}\left(t\right)\tag2$$
And, we know that:
$$\text{I}_\text{C}\left(t\right)=\text{C}\cdot\text{V}_\text{C}'\left(t\right...
The above is the question. I am unable to understand how the last step of the answer is done
There is an interpretation of $G$-structures as equivalence classes of the metric tensor, which apparently relates to their interpretation as Cartan geometries via their stabilizer groups being subgroups, but how does one compare two such $G$-structure when they don't even have the same model?
You can relate the metric structure and conformal structure by the equivalence $f^*g = e^{2u}g$, but how does this work out on a bundle level?
Most sources I can find on the topic assume the model space to be $\mathbb{R}^n$ with the stabilizer being a subset of $\mathrm{GL}(n)$, but that doesn't seem to be the case for the conformal or projective group
I guess I can maybe consider the projective space of the $\mathbb{R}^n$ in question for the projective structure, but I'm not quite sure how it works out for the conformal structure with the Möbius space
Is there a standard name for the following graph theory problem? --> Given a directed graph, find the vertex (vertices) from which the largest number of other vertices are reachable.
By the way, I said "After every set of ordinals there's another ordinal"
"What about the set of all ordinals?" This is called the Burali–Forti paradox, and it's resolved in a similar way to the Russell paradox ("The set of all sets that do not contain themselves") - you use a system where certain sets are forbidden (they're "too big to be sets")
Such a system is called "a set theory", and one popular one is called "ZFC set theory"
Burali-Forti is one person with a hyphenated last name, not two people, by the way
There's another way to define ordinals, by the way, as "order types of well-ordered sets".
A set is well-ordered if every subset has a minimum. Two sets have the same order type if there's an order-preserving bijection between them.
The ordinal ω+1, for example, is the order type of {0, 1/2, 2/3, 3/4, … 1}. It's also the order type of {0, 1, 2, 3, … ω}. Each ordinal is the order type of the set of smaller ordinals.
I think trying to read books you're "not ready for yet" is a good idea because, (a) sometimes not all of the "prerequisites" are actually required, and (b) if there's something you don't get, or something that requires knowing some background, now you have motivation for learning that background
(and a lot of math is very "bring your own motivation" so take it where you can find it)
The most striking example of ordinals being used outside of set theory is in the theory of braids.
Braids have something called the Dehornoy (pronounced "de orn-WAH") ordering.
If you restrict to braids where all the overcrossings are the same direction, those braids turn out to be well-ordered under the Dehornoy ordering (recall that "well-ordered" means every subset has a least element).
That set of braids turns out to have order type ω^(ω^(n−2)) where n is the number of strings.
> the most striking example I KNOW OF of braids being used outside of set theory
^is what I meant to write
A note on the name. You may have also heard of "cardinals". "Cardinals" and "ordinals" are similar concepts with similar names, so it may be hard to keep them apart. The important thing is that ordinals refer to order, hence the name
(Another use of ordinals is in something called the "fast-growing hierarchy", used to define functions that get large very quickly)
Vectors are interpreted as not having a base point. They're simply a direction and magnitude.
If I draw an arrow over here on the left, and I draw another arrow over there on the right with the same direction and size, they are considered to be equal vectors
From wiki, Cartesian coordinate is defined by an ordered pair of perpendicular lines. What is the proper term other than saying two perpendicular lines?
@Slereah that is my question. Orthogonality means the angle between two vectors is 90 but this definition doesn't say anything about whether they are intersect or not.
why does the reisz representation theorem for sequence spaces imply that that the dual of $l_1$ is not separable? I know that $l_{\infty}$ is not seperable but i'm asking as to why RRT implies that
@CroCo you can however define segments of line equations by limiting their domain. for example, in the cartesian plane, the graphs of the line segments [0,a] and [b,0], for 0<a,b<1
@CroCo three dimensional cartesian plane with line equations going through origin, and for some reason there's a little arrow at the tip, probably in order to deliberately confuse the students hehe
maths, the term 'riesz representation theorem' is so overused that i'm not quite sure what you mean. is it just the identification of the dual of ell^1 with ell^infty? people do sometime use "RRT" for that (or more generally for some 'concrete' identification of the dual of a banach space)
I'm looking for a proper term to define what is a frame which is used in robotics to refer to three unit vectors where their tails meet at a specific point
@AkivaWeinberger I'll have to look in them. I haven't heard of these concepts before. Well -- I have seen chains. I guess that concept may be similar to the braids.
maths: OK. so the dual of ell^1 is not separable because (by that result) it is isometrically isomorphic to ell^infty, which is not separable (i assume this is known?). and separability is invariant under isometric isomorphism.
it's probably enough to know that the dual of ell^1 contains an isometrically embedded copy of ell^infty; you don't need the full identification of the dual.
but you do need to know or otherwise prove that ell^infty isn't separable.
If I had some ell this cleaning job would go a lot quicker. I have to do like 20 deep-cleaning tasks around house b/c we have 12 cats now and my grandma is moving in. I've already been constructing a cat kennel with father for the week. The kitchen alone is going to take me another 1.5 hours