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00:45
the proof of $A \preceq B \land B \preceq A \implies A \thickapprox B$ is lengthy
i wonder if some people can do it on demand
schroeder-bernstein? there's a kind of diagram that accompanies the usual argument that is pretty easy to remember
yeah that one
oh really? i'll look into it
@TedShifrin This was my first meme ever. It hasn't taken off, but when it does, I will be stackexchange-wide famous.
Nested annuli, yup.
00:55
@anakhro Maybe not.
that's how it appears in enderton's set theory book. f is one-to-one from A to B and g is one-to-one from B to A and C_0 = A \ g(B) and C_{n+1} = g(f(C_n))
Oh, no @Leslie. The annuli are way better!
@TedShifrin :(((
at leslie: i'll check it out thanks a lot!
the annuli are great but i only have an electronic copy of a book that has the ping pong diagram
00:56
I learned the annuli from Munkres. Way superior to a darn logician.
shin: the bijection is defined as f on union_n C_n and g^{-1} otherwise
Ted: Munkres' topology book?
i'll look into it too, thanks
I've been using the proof that does ninjutsu with the set $\{C:C\subseteq A \land g"(B\setminus f"C) \subseteq A \setminus C\}$
and I have no clue how the author got intuition for the way he moved in the proof
i'll check out enderton and munkres
so, easy to remember the intuition if you've seen it presented nicely elsewhere. maybe harder to come up something on one's own. even just realizing that it requires proof, and can be done without AC, is kind of a galaxy brain moment
ted: relying on diagrams created by a logician is my way of relying on diagrams without relying on diagrams created by topologists
01:04
Can we not pick on people based on their chosen research fields? :(((
This message brought to you by Applied Mathematicians.
anak all of this is a joke based on me being hostile to diagrams and pictures in general. no offense to topologists is intended. even geometers are sometimes OK.
but applied mathematicians, just no. you do have to draw the line somewhere
Just want to say hello
@leslietownes I was making a joke, too, Leslie.
To explain it and ruin it, I was making fun of applied mathematicians.
oh. good.
there's actually a sweet spot to be in. it's being just applied enough that a large portion of your audience doesn't care about proofs, but not being so applied that people actually compare your methods against what people might actually want to use.
if you can strike that balance, i say go for it
i've been taking comfort in the fact Ramsey the guy from Ramsey's theorem was an economist, and von Neumann was the guy responsible for general equilibria in economics
01:14
Smale and Morse also did stuff in economics, didn't they?
didn't know, cool!
I think I might be thinking of Smale applying Morse theory in economics.
There was that one amusing story about economists and Kakutani.
> In his game theory textbook,[11] Ken Binmore recalls that Kakutani once asked him at a conference why so many economists had attended his talk. When Binmore told him that it was probably because of the Kakutani fixed point theorem, Kakutani was puzzled and replied, "What is the Kakutani fixed point theorem?"
hahaha
If a function $f:[a,b]\to \mathbb R$ is Riemann integrals then $f$ must be discontinuous at a finite subset $S$ of $[a,b]$.
S also includes an empty set so I the statement seems true. However, I think that there is a function which infinitely discontinuous yet Riemann integrable.
01:33
either f has no discontinuities (take S = emptyset) or it does (in which case the set of discontinuities contains a point p, take S = {p}), done
it's not true that the set of discontinuities of f has to be finite, but the set of discontinuities will certainly contain a finite set
so, file under "weird statement, but true"
Heh.
the theorem here is that the set of discontinuities of a riemann integrable function must have "measure zero" (you don't need to define measure in general to define this concept)
but it doesn't have to be finite
the right statement is Riemann-integrable iff bounded + continuous except on a set of measure zero
this is a surprisingly tricky thing to prove
in fact, it is quite non-trivial to give a straightforward argument that a Riemann-integrable function is continuous at any point at all
it's also fairly useless, as results go
along with characterizations of those functions for which FTC holds
well, that's cause the Riemann integral is useless :P
01:37
yeah, i agree
it's always seemed a little weird to me that technical results about a broken integral get more attention (in my view) than simple results about non-broken integrals, at least in some books
@leslietownes how would you teach analysis, then?
@leslietownes The only time i have seen the Axiom of choice come up is in topology, the odd broken example; we talked about it when i learned about Hilbert spaces but all of them used the same definition that was on Wikipedia. The guy was just being an asshat i made it clear what definition i was using and he kept saying i was wrong because it wasn't the definition he uses. The definition one chooses to use is irrelevant as long as everyone is on the same page with which on you are using.
I even made it clear to define what definition I was using and explained why i was using that definition. Yet they kept insisting it was wrong, I just wanted to be done with the conversation.
@Faust I find that in those sorts of discussions, "Ask, don't tell" is the name of the game.
I don't remember how the conversation came about in all honesty.
i dont think i was asking them a question, but i may of been.
01:54
Well, I just mean that people are less likely to accept the truth if they don't come across it themselves (e.g. through answering a question).
anakh: i would start with the riemann integral, which is fine, but not waste any time on big theorems characterizing riemann integrability
@leslietownes Do you think you could adequately highlight how bad the Riemann integral is if you didn't characterize Riemann integrability?
@anakhro It was just frustrating because it was completely irrelevant to what i was trying to talk about lol.
anakhro: you could say with examples or even just discussion that the riemann integral is not well behaved under various operations and leave it at that
same with the FTC. prove it for the functions that you meet in a calc textbook, do not bother formulating more general FTCs let alone the most general possible
@leslietownes What examples would you use in particular?
01:56
The Riemann integral can be fixed once you understand whats wrong with it but it is still much harder to compute than several other types of integrals.
The one advantage the Reimann integral has is that it has a very nice geometric intuition about what is going on.
anakhro any of the standard ones. for example, pointwise limits of riemann integrable functions do not need to be riemann integrable. a few examples, done, no more about what might or might not be riemann integrable
"here's this notion, let's now abstractly characterize what we can input into it and what its outputs are" is not that useful in teaching introductory analysis. too many pathologies lurk right under the hood
rudin's chapter 2 not withstanding, you shouldn't need to study general point set topology first :)
One thing the Reimann integral has problems with is when it ends up with a point of discontinuity at infinity as it kind of takes an average which causes it to break. You can fix this with enough analysis applied correctly or the concept of a measure. In the end though even fixing that problem it is generally very rare that it is true that $ \int \Sigma_{n}^{\infty} f(x) dx = \Sigma_{n}^{\infty} \int f(x) dx $
@leslietownes do you prefer to introduce the Lebesgue integral with or without the concept of measures (or, e.g. the Lebesgue measure).
but with something like the lebegue integral its much easier to make such a statement true
anakhro: i don't have an opinion on that. i think after a first exposure to analysis, the choices made don't matter too much
02:04
@leslietownes Would you avoid introducing the Lebesgue integral in the "first exposure", then?
Hmm I am curious i have never seen the lebesgue integral introduces without measures.
at my university its not usually touched on as undergrad.
same at most US universities. i think that this is fine
Its defiantly cool though ^^
faust: some functional analysis oriented books start with linear functionals on function spaces, pass to a completion, and then define the measure in terms of that
very roughly speaking, you define integrals first, then measures
02:07
Its not uncommon especially in stats to define measures early
i think i've seen one or two stat books do something similar, where the expectation is given a primary role and the event space is incidental
which kinda makes some kind of applied sense
It is convenient for stats. Anyway how is everyone doing today? all full of turkeys and sleepy?
@leslietownes thanks a lot Leslie and Thorgott. This “measure” is introduced while studying Lebegsgue integral?
oh i forgot its not thanksgiving in the US
koro: a lot of the time yes
ha, my daughter was just chanting 'canada, canada, canada' today because they had something about thanksgiving at her day care.
02:11
@Koro Usually, but you can come across it without it.
I remember something blowing my mind when i saw it the first time. I think it was showing that the measure of the set of open balls around every rational number having measure 0 was what blew my mind.
I mean i had known for a long time that the integral from 0 to 1 over Q was 0 but that is alot more points than just Q and it was still 0.
@leslietownes Soon she will become one of us.
It seems much more natural to have an introduction to topology before learning about the lebesgue integral imo
For now, I perceive “measure” of a set as “length” of the set. For example: Cantor set has measure zero for it does not have any line segment in it.
[0,1] has measure 1-0=1
@Faust To define the Lebesgue integral without mentioning the premeasure or measure, you first define the integral of a step function. Then define a Lebesgue integrable function as a function f such that there is a sequence of step functions f_n such that (i) $\sum\int|f_n| <\infty$ and (ii) $f(x) = \sum f_n(x)$ for every x such that $\sum |f_n(x)| < \infty$. Then the Lebesgue integral of f is defined by (i).
Of course there are a few technical results to show (e.g. that it doesn't depend on the family f_n)
But by far, this avoids having to define anything remotely close to a sigma algebra.
02:27
@Koro It depends on what cantor set your talking about some of them have a measure. somehow cantor found the perfect thing to describe what was going on in some sense
However, it does abstract away the notation of measures, so that might be undesirable.
@anakhro thats intresting
@Faust I see. I was however referring to the cantor set one gets when they keep on trisecting [0,1] discarding middle thirds.
Care to take a guess what happens if you discard the middle 1/4's instead of 1/3's.
In that case, do we get a set that’s not perfect and has a line segment in it?
02:34
well both cases have line segments in them but the 1/4 case you end up with measure 1/2 instead of measure 0
at least line segment in some sense of the word
@Faust I see. I have yet to see how measure is defined.
But in case of cantor set (obtained by trisecting and discarding middle thirds), there is no line segment in it.
its very similar to the idea of the cantor set
I’ll read about that in more detail, when I cover Lebesgue integrals.
I have noted many concepts recently which use Lebesgue measure .
basically, if your talking about the length of the interval (1,0) your set will have some measure between 0 and 1 and the complement of your set will have measure so that the sum of the measure of the original set and its complement added together equals 1.
In the cantor trisecting example you basically prove that all of the measure in that interval is contained in the Complement of the cantor set.
You still have alot of points in the cantor set, in fact what seems like many, many more points than Q has.
 
3 hours later…
05:31
I am seeing two definitions of a reducible representation, 1. if there exists a non trivial G-invariant subspace and 2. if the matrix can be written into upper triangular form
How are these two connected
if U is an invariant subspace and you choose a basis of U, and then extend it to a basis of the whole space, with respect to that basis, the image of the rep will be block upper triangular
and vice versa, if you can turn something into block upper triangular via a change of basis, that gives you an invariant subspace
05:56
hi! has anybody of you knowledge on this topic: ftp.jssac.org/Editor/Suushiki/V18/No1/V18N1_102.pdf ?
(cyclic polygons and their circumradius)
i just can't believe that it's that hard to find a formula for this
337,550,051 terms and a polynomial of degree 38 just for a heptagon, ???
can't find any more recent papers/research/work on this specific topic
ah, just found another one from 2018: jssac.net/Editor/CJssac/V03/V3_101.pdf
still madness
"For example, the expansion of P¯28 took 371 days of CPU time in total (with 182 jobs, on Machine B described in Subsection 4.1)" :$
i don't understand why exactly it's that difficult
06:13
i guess the lesson is that the intuition that this problem ought not to scale horribly is wrong :)
difficult to know what to make of that figure without knowing more about the CPU and whether anybody bothered too much with how fast to make that code. maybe not too surprising that large amounts of exact arithmetic with large numbers of things could take a while.
Made a modular arithmetic answer on MO and somebody DV'd it! :(
-1
A: Are there finitely many primes $x$ such that for a fixed odd prime $p$, $n=x^{p-1}+x^{p-2}+\dotsb + x+1$ is composite and $x \mid \phi(n)$?

AbstractSpacecraftQuoting a comment above: I'm getting: $\phi(n) = n \prod_{p \mid n} (p-1)/p$ so that if $\phi(n) = 0 \pmod x$, then that implies $n \prod_{p \mid n} (p-1) = 0 \cdot \prod p = 0 \pmod x$ and of course $n = 1 \pmod x$ so we get, if $x \mid \phi(n)$ then $x \mid \prod_{p \mid n} (p - 1)$ and of co...

06:40
Guys, I have a pretty simple question:
I was asked to expand $\sqrt{1+x}$ to two terms plus remainder
Real simple; I busted out the expansion:
$1 + \frac{x}{2} -\frac{x^2}{(1+\theta x)^{\frac{3}{2}}}$
But then my textbook says the expansion should be
$1 + \frac{x}{2} -\frac{1}{4(1+\theta x)^{\frac{3}{2}}}$
I made a typo for the first equation
It should be $-\frac{x^2}{8(1+\theta x)^{\frac{3}{2}}}$
I don’t see at all how to obtain the textbook’s expression for remainder
Btw I apologize for any formatting errors; I’m typing this on my phone
07:16
could anyone with knowledge about the dirichlet problem/greens functions help me take a look at this please? math.stackexchange.com/questions/4274327/… , I am thoroughly confused
actually it isnt even necessary, just basic knowledge about harmonic functions
@DavidChoi that looks wrong.
i think it is possible that the assumption I made about regularity of the domain is just wrong.. and so I can't solve the dirichlet problem with those boundary values because of the horziontal slit, this makes intuitive sense to me, but the result of ransford does indeed claim that the dirichlet problem can be solved in this type of domain
@robjohn do you mean the textbook?
07:48
@DavidChoi yes.
I get your second error term, with the $8$ in the denominator.
 
3 hours later…
10:25
I claim that Dirichlet function is algebraic.
That is, $f:\mathbb R\to \{1,0\}$ defined by $f(x)=\begin{cases} 1; x\in Q\\ 0; x\in Q^c \end{cases}$ is an algebraic function.
Consider the polynomial $P(z)=(z-1)(z)(z-x)$. Clearly for all $x\in R$ we have $P(f(x))=0$
It follows that function $f$ is a root of the polynomial equation $P(z)=0$.
Therefore, by definition $f$ is an algebraic function.
Is my understanding correct? Thanks.
@Koro what is $x$ in $P(z)$?
Sorry, I meant $P(z,x)$, which means a polynomial in $z$ whose coefficients are polynomials in $x$ (variable). That is, $P(z,x)= a_1(x)z^m + a_2(x)z^{m-1}+...+a_m(x)z + a_{m+1}(x) $
where $a_i$'s are polynomials.
I still don't see how that says that $f(x)$ is algebraic
10:41
professor Rob, what I think is that since $z=f(x)$ satisfies the polynomial equation $P(z,x)=0$, that's why $f$ is algebraic. We have $P(f(x),x)= (f(x)-1)(f(x))(f(x)-x)$ so for rational $x$, we have $P(f(x)=1,x)=0$ and for irrational $x$ also, since $f(x)=0$, we again have $P(f(x)=0, x)=0$
I had discussed the same in the above linked question under comment section of the answer.
But today, I noted through someone that in Terrence Tao's Analysis 1, Dirichlet function has been called transcendental and so I got confused now.
Professor Rob, I think that this is the possibility: The definition of algebraic function: We call a function $y=f(x)$ an algebraic function if there exists a polynomial $P(y,x)=0$ such that $P(f(x),x)=0$ for all $x\in R$.
However, on chapter 9, page 218 professor Terry Tao says: "This function is not algebraic (i.e. it cannot be expressed in terms of x purely by using the standard algebraic operations of $+,-$ , square root, division etc.; we will not need this notion in this text".
It seems that Terence Tao uses a different definition of algebraicity. The definition that I am using (the one stated above) is more general. One should keep in mind that not every polynomial can be solved explicitly (for example there is no formula for finding $x$ in $7x^{10}+787 x^7+63x^6+19x^5+17x^4+11x^3+131x^2+100x+43=0$) but that doesn't mean that its roots are transcendental.
professor Rob, is my understanding correct? Thanks.
11:19
professor Rob, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebraic_function first para seems to be in line with my understanding.
11:33
Wikipedia seems to agree with my common sense that says one shouldn't call discontinuous functions algebraic
@Thorgott where is it mentioned that a discontinuous function can't be algebraic?
"In more precise terms, an algebraic function of degree n in one variable x is a function {\displaystyle y=f(x),}{\displaystyle y=f(x),} that is continuous in its domain and satisfies a polynomial equation"
??
@Thor: I am using the definition as stated in the text -A course of Pure mathematics by GH Hardy.
The definition nowhere mentions continuity.
12:00
don't give me a "??" when I'm quoting the Wikipedia article you yourself have linked
Hardy's text is outdated by over a century and doesn't even contain a rigorous definition of the notion of a function, that's not a place to take as reference
@Thorgott yes, I saw it. Somehow, I overlooked that in the article.
So my understanding now is: based on the definition that I am using, Dirichlet function is algebraic.
Based on the definition using continuity, of course Dirichlet function is not algebraic.
I think a definition allowing discontinuous functions to be algebraic is absolutely useless mathematically, but you do you
if I have some spaces universal cover $U $, the covering map $p : U \rightarrow X$, and I have two (path-connected) open sets $W_1,W_2$, such that $\{\gamma(W_i) \}_{\gamma \in \Gamma}$ are disjoint and their unions are $p^{-1}(V_{i})$ respectively, for some evenly covered (path-connected) open sets $V_i$ (respectively), then is it true there are at most finitely many $\gamma$ s.t. $\gamma(W_1) \cap W_2 \neq \emptyset$?
here $\Gamma$ is the deck transformation group
@Thor, I don't know as of now whether allowing discontinuous functions as algebraic functions is useless or not. You probably know that better :). I'm just learning. Also, encyclopediaofmath.org/wiki/Algebraic_function does not seem to use continuity to define algebraic functions.
i'm not willing to debate definitions right now. For now, I only wanted to know whether my understanding based on the definition of algebraic functions (stated earlier) is correct or not. :(
12:19
or perhaps, if what I said is incorrect, how does one show that there are only finitely many $\gamma \in \Gamma$ s.t. $\gamma(K) \cap K \neq \emptyset$ for $K \subset U$ compact, the reason I asked the former is because I can show this for small enough open sets, and i'm trying to generalize that result to the compact case by the usual open covering stuff
on the way to doing that , I realized for how I want to prove the compact case, I need to prove the former claim
eh, I think what you're taking away from that article is misleading
if you read the latter parts, they wanna think of algebraic functions as algebraic elements over a rational function field
which is a legitimate thing to do, but those are only functions in a formal sense, not concrete functions like what you wanna talk about
@Koro So you're saying that if $f(x)(f(x)-1)=0$ then $f$ is an algebraic function? That means any function whose range is $\{0,1\}$ is algebraic? That is just not right.
Later in the Wikipedia article it says: "In more precise terms, an algebraic function of degree $n$ in one variable $x$ is a function $y=f(x)$, that is continuous in its domain and satisfies a polynomial equation..."
12:35
oh, I seem to have solved it... although im not too solid on my proof, in fact under my assumptions I think there is at most one such deck transformation sending a $W_1$ to $W_2$, since it would have to send the translate of $p^{-1}(p(W_1) \cap p(W_2))$ sitting in $W_1$ to the translate sitting in $W_2$, and there is only one such deck transformation
12:45
@robjohn yes because that's how the definition was introduced to me.
math.stackexchange.com/questions/4081438/… as I mentioned here also. :(
 
3 hours later…
16:09
@Ted: good morning!
Hi @robjohn
It was really cold here this morning.
Going down to the 40s tonight, I think.
Yeah, it was 44° here when I was in the park this morning.
16:13
But your temp is moderated a bit more by the ocean.
 
1 hour later…
17:42
Could someone verify for me please if $n + \lfloor\log_2(x)\rfloor \leq \lfloor\log_2(y)\rfloor$ for $\lbrace n,x,y \rbrace\in\mathbb{N}_0$ holds?
is there some relation between x, y, n
other than the stated one, i mean
Well, not in this context as far as I'm concerned.
consider x = y = 1, n arbitrary, or x = 2^f(n), y = 2^g(n), n arbitrary and f, g arbitrary positive-integer-valued functions, or what the thing ought to mean if x or y is 0
Although I'm pretty sure the whole inequality that I'm interested in is actually $n+\lfloor\log_2(x)\rfloor\leq\lfloor\log_2(y)\rfloor\leq 1 + n + \lfloor\log_2(x)\rfloor$.
If correct, then it describes the largest power of two for which I can multiply x such that $2^n x \leq y$.
This of course is just a modified form of the first inequality I posted.
18:02
@leslietownes Interesting, I see what you're saying. Assume in this context, then, that the natural logarithm and its inverse being used here are defined for the entire set of $\mathbb{N}_0$.
18:37
we are moving to beyond logarithm as the natural one produces too much methane.
19:02
So cows have to go back to the abacus?
No, only the slide rule.
slide rules are nothing but logarithms!
We are getting into things that only Ted and Leslie know about. These are dangerous waters.
more likely Ted and copper. Leslie isn’t old enough.
surely even you have seen how slide rules work?
yeesh, i'm not that old. although i have a slide rule somewhere. i never had any reason to use it.
19:11
I willed my circular slide rule from 1969 to the math club at UGA when I retired.
i remember bicycling to the Green Line and going to the MIT Coop to get it one Saturday in high school. Big trip!
 
1 hour later…
20:26
if any finite extension of Qp is solvable, then where is the quintic formula for Qp?
20:44
26
Q: Solubility of the quintic?

Jon CohenOver the p-adics, every Galois group is solvable. Does this imply that the quintic (and higher-order polynomials for that matter) can be solved by radicals over $\mathbb{Q}_p$? EDIT: The original place I learned that the p-adic galois groups were solvable was in Milne's Algebraic Number Theory ...

kinda depends on what you mean by 'solvable.' this comes up in the case of Q too, a little bit.
god damn the linear algebra professor is going on about proving things about dual spaces and adjunct transformations and all my classmates ask on TA office hours are trivial computation problems
I believe quintics have about 0 solubility in any known chemical element.
@copper.hat Need to make it produce CO2 instead in order to compute $\log(0)$.
Speaking of, something I've wondered about is why $\log(0)$ isn't defined in spite of the fact that it seems to approach negative infinity for its real part as x approaches zero for $\log(x)$.
21:03
nothing stopping you from defining it any way you want, i guess
I think it would make the most sense to first define the result of division by zero before defining log(0). If I were going to do that, I'd probably define division by zero as a function that maps from reals to some new set.
21:17
@Derivative be the change and ask difficult problems in office hours
21:44
My experience in 40 years of teaching was that too often students came to office hours unprepared, often not having read the homework problems — let alone having tried to do them.
Plenty of exceptions, of course.
21:57
is there a way to formalize the idea of a function $f: \mathbb{N} \times \{-1,1\} \to \mathbb{N}$ such that $f(x,r) = x + r$, such that we randomly get either $r=1$ or $r=-1$ for each successive $x$?
@TedShifrin yeah, that happens a lot in tutoring
it might be a function that maps to the integers and not to the natural numbers, and that's among one of the things I'd like to figure out
@shintuku i feel like you'd do that by having a family of functions $F(x,s)$ where $s$ is some sequence of $\pm1$'s, and then somehow randomly choosing one of them
that said, it's probably best to just think of the simpler version first: how would you formalize a 'random' sequence
You gave a formula, so I don’t understand what you’re talking about.
it's the end of the day and i can feel my brain leaking out
22:03
you want a random variable mapping $\Bbb N\to{\pm 1\}$
it's easy if you only deal with a subset of N, since then there's finitely many sequences and thus you can just pick one of them at random
oh, so it would actually be $f:\mathbb N \to \mathbb Z$ s.t. $f(x) = x + R(x)$, where $R$ denotes a random variable
i'm forgetting how one formalizes this for N as a whole tho
Can’t edit. I hate chat on tablet.
also didn't know you could shorten mathbb to Bbb, thanks
although the above mentioned $f$ wouldn't exactly be a function
22:05
LOL, my inability to edit served a purpose.
editing chat on the mobile site is possible but it be annoying
they would need to be iid $X_1, X_2, \cdots$
where each $X_i$ has image in $\{\pm1\}$
and then the "function" would be $f(i) = i + X_i$
as an example of how this kind of thing works, think of probability questions involving random coin flips
at Leaky Nun: does idd stand for independent and identically distributed?
and each $f(i)$ would be a random variable
yeah
22:07
Who cares about identically distributed?
e.g. repeatedly flipping a fair coin and asking for the probability of seeing HTH before TT
ok then just independent
i never did manage to figure out how you'd solve problems like that from countable additivity
which irritates me
so $f$ wouldn't exactly be a function, right? since $f(4)$ has $(1/2)^4$ possible values
you really wouldn't think of the randomness being in $f$ itself
you'd have $f$ be one particular realization of the $\pm$ sequence
to get a set of all such $f$'s
and then pick one at random
22:10
@shintuku Huh?
to put it differently: functions aren't random, but the choice of a function can be random
@TedShifrin for $f(n)$ each iteration is either $n + 1$ or $n-1$. so 4 iterations in we have a couple of possible branches
oh you're right, I meant $2^4$ possible values
so you want $Y_i := \sum_{j=1}^i X_j$ basically
mmm, random walks
I still say you’re wrong.
22:14
oh, right @LeakyNun, I think it would be $\sum_{j=1}^i 1 + X_j$
There are 2 choices of value.
if you had some kind of recursion going on then i could see that summation
but i don't see where that's happening
I give up on following.
your case is more like taking the identity function and adding a random noise
@TedShifrin What region of the US gonna be that cold? I know it'll be in WI in no time! But not yet!
22:16
southern Cal!
oh, right! there's no recursion, $f(1) = 1 + 1$ or $f(1) = 1 - 1$, then $f(2) = 2 + 1$ or $f(2) = 2 - 1$, etc.
@TedShifrin wow
surprising to see it drop that much this early
i love it.
thanks to all for the help
it's 64 here. a bit cooler than it's been but pleasant
22:17
Robjohn chillier than here.
though if i wasn't wearing sleeves i might be saying a different story
@robjohn Are we talking CA? Sorry, I'm late to the game. And, sorry to say, I don't, and never did, own a slide rule.
i don't think we're supposed to go below the low 50s. i assume we are talking night time lows.
hmm
i wonder what the oldest analog computer would be. the slide rule is a candidate
i don't want to turn the heat on. :(
22:18
Thanks, @Ted!
do abacus-like things count? those go way back.
oh
The Antikythera mechanism ( AN-tih-kih-THEER-ə) is an ancient Greek hand-powered orrery, described as the oldest example of an analogue computer used to predict astronomical positions and eclipses decades in advance. It could also be used to track the four-year cycle of athletic games which was similar to an Olympiad, the cycle of the ancient Olympic Games. This artefact was among wreckage retrieved from a shipwreck off the coast of the Greek island Antikythera in 1901. On 17 May 1902 it was identified as containing a gear by archaeologist Valerios Stais. The device, housed in the remains of a...
I needed one for all my chem and physics courses in high school and at MIT. HP calculators started to show up later in my college career, but they cost huge fortunes.
that beats a lot of them
@LeakyNun easy way to get the TA and the other students to hate you
22:19
@leslietownes Just hope it's not a repeat of Texas's saga from last winter!
my dad had stories of seeing 'the engineers' on his college campus with slide rules. i don't think he ever used one in high school.
I've seen one, a slide rule, in a museum once, I think (@Ted) ;P
You’re too young.
i like thinking about the history of stuff like this, even though it's impossible to answer, b/c it puts into perspective how much of human history is simply not within reach
like, how tf did human language emerge
Derivative. Tough. If you’re asking for help with lecture and not showing off, that’s their job.
22:22
can't have history without language
@Semiclassical Exactly! Or what did humans do before flushable toilets! I mean, those are details rarely discussed in history books!
semi there is also the huge issue of making tangible things that are durable. if you stored information via plant fiber that wasn't wood, or wood and not metal/stone, good luck. particularly depending on climate.
@TedShifrin The HP-35 came out when I was in high school. It was $400.
Outhouses?
water closets
22:24
Then when each new one came out, it was $400.
right, robjohn, like 1973?
@TedShifrin Buckets
@Derivative then there's nothing that can be done, so you don't need to worry about it
@TedShifrin that sounds about right.
so, this is a sentence i stumbled on via wikipedia's page on billiard-ball computers
22:24
my father in law began his career with a curta calculator.
"Logic gates based on billiard-ball computer designs have also been made to operate using live soldier crabs of the species Mictyris guinotae in place of the billiard balls."
@Semiclassical Crabby slave labor
Just so you don't think I'm all that young: my first computer programming class, when I was 12, was done via punch cards...
That was my college days for sure.
'computer programming class' already marks you as young.
22:27
so I gave up on learning to program.
math profs turn coffee into theorems, biologists turn living species into computational automata
neat
nah, I took a course in high school in 1969.
you do wonder if anyone was protesting outside the lab for that.
PDP11 with tape
soldier crabs aren't cute enough for that
22:28
here's where i realize i forgot that our country used to have a functioning school system.
@leslietownes Hah!
And antiwar protests instead of the president overthrowing democracy
the fact that there's a nonzero chance of him running again and winning sorta looms like a specter for me
Yup, and the governors have it set up for him to win even when he doesn’t… democracy’s about done.
especially with how many thumbs are being placed on scales in advance of the next election
yeah
22:32
Time for me to die soon.
governers and sec's of state and election commissioners....it's loathesome all the way down
politics is never pretty at anytime or place.
@TedShifrin I might seriously think about relocating; but "where" is the question.
@copper.hat You just answered me! No doubt. But there is bad, worse, worser, and a few vying for worst.
@amWhy Yup. Not likely for me at this point with messed up back, etc.
i still have my beautiful faber castell slide rule. i found my dad's circular financial slide rule a few months ago while going through my mum's stuff.
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