« first day (4057 days earlier)      last day (1261 days later) » 
00:00 - 17:0017:00 - 00:00

00:28
@copper.hat yeah, we sold my uncle's house last year and the appraisal was way higher than the sale price and so we tried to get some of the loss off on taxes, but our preparer is not comfortable claiming a loss since she feels that everything should have gone up last year, if anything. So we will not be getting a refund on that probably.
00:45
@robjohn: Integrity is over-valued.
@robjohn Bummer! I'm drowning in taxes and related stuff. I have to file an Irish tax return but at least do not owe anything, and need to sort out my daughter as her taxes became complicated this year and are likely to continue so.
@copper.hat yeah, our taxes are quite complicated and thanks to an ex-President, are a nightmare now.
@TedShifrin certainly is. No value to it at all according to our tax bill...
imprecise question i'm thinking about over at h Bar too. Hilbert spaces are also Banach spaces, and closed subspaces of Banach spaces are also Banach. Do there always exist closed subspaces of Banach spaces which are also Hilbert spaces? And if so, how does one classify/identify them?
Closed? Well, $L^2$ won't be a closed subspace of $L^1$, will it?
00:50
You can find finite dimensional subspaces, of course.
maybe i'd better drop that, then
I'm not sure it's a good question, irregardless.
@TedShifrin yeah, true.
Prove that if a matrix $Y$ is obtained from $X$ by performing one or more row operations, then their row spaces are identical.
Proof: Given the row space $R_X$ of $X$, a row operation consists of substituting one of the rows of $R_X$ by a linear combination of vectors in $R_X$. Therefore, any $R_B$ obtained through row operations on $R_X$ is nothing else than a set of vectors spanned by (produced by a linear combination of $R_X$).
I started with this as "C* algebra" instead of Banach spaces, but maybe changing it was a mistake
00:52
does anyone believe me or do i have to start talking about bases
One or more operations? Care to be specific?
You do not need bases at all.
whoops, i meant row operations
Just argue inclusion both ways.
the logic was: If I start from a Hilbert space $H$, I have the C* algebra $B(H)$ of bounded linear operators on $H$, and within that algebra I can find the Hilbert-Schmidt operators $B_2(H)\subset B(H)$.
Well, if you're talking $C^*$ algebras, then I withdraw and page @leslie.
00:54
i was thinking doing double inclusion, but i thought that maybe the above was more intuitive and faster, if it worked, even if it is slightly informal
To show identical, you can't just show subset.
What if row operations allowed multiplying one row by $0$?
hm, but would that still not be a linear combination of vectors in $R_X$?
setting coefficients to 0
You drop row space when you do this.
So you will get inclusion one way, but not the other.
That's the whole point.
oh, right. if I have a set $V$ where $v \in V$ is a linear combination of vectors from $W$, that doesn't mean $W$ is a set of linear combinations of vectors from $V$
@TedShifrin Your statement started me on a journey that ended here
01:00
ROFL
read the whole thing. It is interesting
One of my best friends and I use it humorously, and most of our friends have quit correcting us.
@TedShifrin fair
the question on the C* algebra side was essentially "how to classify C* subalgebras which are also Hilbert spaces"
That seems a better question than your original, but maybe an analyst would explain why I'm wrong.
possibly
01:03
@robjohn It seems like my usage fit within her parameters.
@shintuku That truly is the whole point.
I know that the difference between Banach and Hilbert spaces is whether the norm on a Banach space is an inner product norm (satisfies the parallelogram law and thus determines an inner product)
great, thanks!
so i was wondering when you can find subspaces for which the norm is an inner product norm but not on the entire space.
(and how to classify those)
Oh, well, using the $L^1$ norm on $L^2$ doesn't help.
Checking the parallelogram law occurs on two-dimensional subspaces, so I guess if it fails, it's going to fail in finite dimensional subspaces as well.
finite being larger than one, at least
01:07
Could it happen to work on some two-dimensional subspace. Probably?
yeah, that's what i wonder
of course, just being Banach may be too general. so restricting to the case of C* algebras seems a healthy simplification
@Leslie would know this in a millisecond.
I sorta know an answer, though it feels like it's more circuitous than it should be. If I have a C*-algebra $A$, I can pick a state $\omega$ and use the GNS construction to get $\mathcal{A}=B(H_\omega)$ as a representation on the Hilbert space $H_\omega$. From there I can obtain $B_2(H_\omega)\subset B(H_\omega)$ which is naturally a Hilbert space.
What you need is an abstract spacecraft with which you can view this space
that would seemingly push the problem back to representation theory of C* algebras but that's a lot better known.
01:15
@Semiclassical what are you trying to do?
ultimately, figure out what math i should know for certain QM stuff
that's addressing the case when the entire C*-algebra is a Hilbert space. I'm aware that doesn't happen much
I'm interested in subalgebras
norm-closed subalgebras?
as opposed to domalgebras
01:17
that sounds plausible
note that the hilbert space operators are a hilbert space, but with a different norm than the operator norm. do you care about renorming?
renorming changes the game
Well, if we can renorm, then $L^2$ is a subspace of $L^1$.
That was my first comment.
01:17
well there are gradations of renorming other than arbitrary renorming.
That wasn't arbitrary, dammit.
i mean, you can quantify 'renorming' in such a way that would rule out renorming L^2 with L^1 but might not rule out other norms.
hanche-olsen's comment about the geometry of the unit ball is worth looking into. that is often how easy embedding results are proved or disproved
because of the nice relationships between subspaces and subspaces of duals and double-duals.
sounds like i've got stuff to read, then
The final comment on his answer seems important.
the "modulus of convexity" might also be a worthwhile jumping off point. it has been a long time since i studied whether you can use it to rule out potential embeddings. but it sometimes gives more information than less quantitative aspects of the geometry of the unit ball.
01:21
Can you please give me a source for one-to-one correspondence with examples on graphs?
looking at those answer, should I be looking specifically for one-dimensional subalgebras? That'd be disappointing.
What are you even talking about, @avra?
did i just say the g-word? forgive me.
Yes, @leslie, you sinned for the last time.
are you asking "what can we say about the graphs of bijective functions?"
01:24
@Semiclassical. Yes please
@TedShifrin. :(
bijection relation = one-to-one + onto
"horizontal line" and "vertical line" tests
I am just looking for a source with examples please if you have one at hand
Are we talking only functions $\Bbb R\to\Bbb R$? What is the context?
I mean for graphs of vertices and edges
01:27
so you mean like the picture here?
Yes!
This is bipartite graph
this is one-to-one
I am looking for source with examples
Or systematic way to prove this for graphs
what do you, 'examples? they all look the same
most what I found is either basic or too complex
This is why I said I had no idea what you were talking about. I rest my case.
^
only difference between the various graphs is which vertices are connected and how many there are
01:29
It sounds to me like you need to sit down and do some examples for yourself and decide what the issue is.
semiclassical, this reminds me a bit of the right group action thing. the arrows going left to right. if you use a diagram like that for f: X -> Y and "compose" with a diagram of g: Y -> Z placed to its right [by connecting the arrows and pulling the strings taut], you get a representation of $g \circ f$, although the diagram for $f$ appears to the left of that of $g$ :)
@Semiclassical. Some graphs get very complex, so doing it manually seems crazy.
I am looking for simple explanation how to do it in a systematic way
I still have no idea what you're talking about.
avra, people tend to prove general statements about graphs without reference to a pictorial representation. the visual representation is for working examples and identifying trouble spots.
i have no idea what you mean. for each vertex in X you pick exactly one vertex in Y and draw a line between them. what's complex about that?
01:31
Where are the edges coming into play?
What is the function?
I meant isomorphism
what does a graph have to do with being one-to-one
@Thorgott graph of a relation more generally, presumably
So is isomorphism same as bijection please
define isomorphism
01:32
that's entirely too vague to answer. in what context?
two graphs are isomorphic if there is a one-to-one correspondence
now you're talking about graph isomorphism.
that's entirely different than "bijection"
:/ sorry
if you're wondering how to tell if two arbitrary graphs are isomorphic, in general it's not easy
i guess the vaccination was a bijection?
01:34
pls someone ban copper
So this is different from bijection. So proving that a relation on a graph is bijective does not prove that it's isomorphic
:-) at last
You are throwing words around like crazy. What is a relation on a graph? Are you talking about a relation on the vertices only?
if the bijection is acting on both the edges and vertices, then it's a graph isomorphism. if it's only on the vertices, it's in general not
@TedShifrin. I see that I am tooo broad. Pardon me. Yes on vertices
not edges
01:35
I need to start smacking @copper.
a graph isomorphism is a relabeling of vertices in such a way that the edges are preserved
So the graph is totally irrelevant.
shakes head
yeah, the terminology seems all over the place right now
hahaha :(
@Semiclassical. tHANKS. Okay so I am mixing both isomorphism and bijection
@leslietownes to make sure I'm understanding that answer from earlier: The only C* algebra that is also a Hilbert space is $\mathbb{C}$. So if we want C* subalgebras which are Hilbert spaces, we need subalgebras which are isomorphic to $\mathbb{C}$.
01:39
@Semiclassical indeed, as far as I know, the algorithmic complexity of determining whether two graphs are isomorphic still isn't even known
@Semiclassical. I found this statement that confused me, "there is a one-to-one correspondence between R and G=<V,E>, E for edges and V for vertices
R is a relation on set A that is a subset of $A \times A$
Relation on what?
And the vertices are in $A$?
So we get an edge any times two vertices are related.
Yes!
That's how they're defining the correspondence.
@Thorgott yeah
01:40
So as you can see above, we are trying to prove a bijection between R and graph G
if you've got small graphs i imagine there's brute-force algorithms
With what I said to explain how.
@Thorgott. Wow!
@Semiclassical. Wow!
semi, sounds right. the examples given in that solution show that in a (norm closed) C* subalgebra with dimension >= 2, a counterexample to the parallelogram inequality can be found within that subalgebra.
" the algorithmic complexity of determining whether two graphs are isomorphic still isn't even known" :0 -- Thorgott
01:42
@leslie Did you ever try that recipe I sent you? Now I've forgotten what it was.
which rules out the two-dimensional possibility floated earlier
ted: the leek one? not yet. the last time i tried to go to the store they didn't have good leeks, which defeated the purpose. maybe this week.
Ah, right, that's what it was. Too bad.
Yeah, I usually find fine ones at Sprouts, but occasionally they are just too old.
@Semiclassical. So, what is meant here please by, "there is a one-to-one correspondence between R and G=<V,E>, E for edges and V for vertices R is a relation on set A that is a subset of A×A., where A is vertices of G"
@Avra a lot can be done with brute force on small graphs, so as long as your application breaks everythign down in into relatively small graphs, you're okay for complexity concerns
01:45
I answered that for you, @Avra. Did you read what I said?
"So we get an edge any times two vertices are related.
"
when i lived in berkeley i lived next to a small market that for some reason always had perfect leeks. i was in heaven.
Yes. Thanks
That's the answer.
What confuses me about that, is if I take the story I gave earlier (start from algebra $\mathcal{A}$, pick a state $\omega\in\mathcal{A}$, use the GNS construction to get $\mathcal{A}$ as $B(H_\omega)$, and thereby obtain $B_2(H_\omega)$)
01:45
and for cheap.
Monterey Market or something else, @leslie?
similar spirit but smaller and less selection. yasai market on college/claremont.
Oh, after my time.
then it seems like I'm getting Hilbert-space subalgebras, indexed by the choice of $\omega$.
I lived on the south side, but shopped on the north side.
01:47
so does that mean that $\mathbb{C}$-subalgebras of $\mathcal{A}$ are indexed by elements of $\mathcal{A}$?
the hilbert schmidt norm is not the same norm as the norm of A (or B(H_omega))
unless i'm missing something
yeah, fair
this is something that's confusing me, the more i think of it
i think in QM applications it's "natural" to consider the hilbert schmidt norm whenever you have a representation on a hilbert space, but it doesn't interact very well with abstract C* algebra structure. i don't know that it has a universal property or something without reference to a choice of representation, for example
i'm fine with it being with reference to a choice of representation
01:51
i was trying to find a way to "get at" the possible ways to have $B_2(H)\subset B(H)=\mathcal{A}$, without focusing on H itself
it's been a long time since i thought about this. you might be interested in the theory of 'operator spaces.' they can be defined abstractly but somewhat concretely are banach spaces paired with a choice of an embedding in some B(H). the pairing matters.
objects without a universal property, what horror
i don't know that many QM people work with them, but maybe they ought to
@leslietownes that's how far the editor is
the motivation is roughly: hey, operators on a Hilbert space are themselves a Hilbert space w/r/t H-S. i wonder how this latter Hilbert space relates to the C* algebra on H
and whether there's a way to understand that without constructing an H explicitly
01:53
i always thought of them as different things. never really thought of connecting them up in any way (not to say that it can't be done)
it's entirely possible it's an unnatural thing to do, of course
I do need to get a better handle on GNS representations, though
02:40
it's good to know the basics. they come up a lot in operator theory.
there are a bunch of theorems that generalize the GNS construction in varying directions. i don't know how important any of that is to QM though.
02:56
the person i should probably talk to about this is Paul Garrett, the guy who wrote that bit on "Hilbert space tensor product does not exist"
if only because he's at the UMN and i know where his office is :P
(i have met him a few times, though that was a while ago)
i'm in single variable analysis. the limit definition gives us $g'(a) = \lim \limits_{x \to a} \frac{g(x) - g(a)}{x-a}$ and without altering the definition, since $f(a)$ is a constant, we can say:
$g'(f(a)) = \lim \limits_{x \to f(a)}\frac{g(x) - g(f(a))}{x-f(a)}$
am I allowed to say: "since for all $x$ approaching $f(a)$ there exists an $x^*$ such that $x=f(x^*)$, and for any such $f(x^*)$, we have a well defined $g(f(x^*))$ , we have:
$g'(f(a)) = \lim \limits_{f(x) \to f(a)}\frac{g(f(x)) - g(f(a))}{f(x)-f(a)}$"
let f(x) = x^2, a = 0, and consider approaching f(a) = 0 via negative x. are there x*'s for which x = f(x*) in this case?
note also that there's nothing thus far that rules out the possibility that f(x) = f(a) for infinitely many x near a, making the interpretation of the denominator of your limit a problem
stick with a textbook proof of the chain rule
calculations of this type motivate the result but don't prove it in generality
03:13
argh both are good counterexamples
some calculus books don't bother to include a complete proof of the chain rule, but rely on arguments about that difference quotient in the cases that it makes sense
i'm trying to figure out rudin's proof. he tells us that the definition of the derivative gives us $g(s) - g(y) = (s-y)[g'(y) + v(s)]$, where $v(s) \to 0$ as $s \to y$, which makes perfect sense, but then he sets $s = f(x)$
doesn't seem like an easy problem to me. the commenters are no slouches at C* algebras. :)
yeah
the problem i have is that i have the expertise to come up with kernels of questions, but not to properly formulate the full question
03:22
life is the search for the full question
well, thinking of it, at no point would a composition $(x^2)^2$ have $x^2$ negative, so maybe only the justification is wrong but there is a way to properly define the limit
certainly, and it might be worth studying how rudin's proof deals with that (or rather, gets around having to explicitly address that case)
sound advice sound advice
this is a real drawback of the rudin approach. everything is arranged exactly so that the tricky details you might run into if you tried it any other way don't even appear
it's also what people like about the rudin approach
03:31
alright, we can account for the second argument by noticing that the limit definition requires the approaching number not to equal the constant
since the condition is $0 < |x-c| < \delta$
...right?
in the original limit you only have a restriction on the values of x approaching a. you don't have any control over how f(x) approaches f(a). there may be no values of x for which f(x) is unequal to f(a)
as far as i can tell, "lim f(x) to f(a)" has no independent meaning
at least rudin doesn't separately define what that might mean
i'd focus on figuring out why rudin is right and not why some other approach isn't wrong
even if the other approach isn't wrong (note i don't see how you get f'(a) appearing in your limit formula, although maybe that's in a next step)
it feels like reinventing the wheel to me
others may differ in opinion
oh! i get it. $g(s) - g(y) = (s -y)[g'(y) + v(s)]$ is indeed from the derivative definition, and if that equality holds, then it must also hold with $s = f(x)$
no need to think up an alternative derivative definition or funky limits
are you proving Chain Rule @shin?
yessir
03:47
while you're at it, you may look up Caratheodory theorem, and then you'll see how Chain Rule follows in 5 to 6 lines :)
(spelling of Caratheodory may be wrong)
imagine if rudin was a lawyer...
imagine if Rudin was a doctor :)
rudin seems more like the type who would go from law school to clerkship to judge without ever getting his hands dirty
Right to the worthless Supreme Court. Super qualified.
03:51
Yes, I’m in a bitchy mood.
@Koro you're on convex optimization?
on an unrelated note, i've completed the proof. it's not very insightful, but it is so tremendously short i'm not sure i could forget it
The right proof, which works in multivariable, is best linear approximation.
But no calculus books teach this.
the $f(x) - f(a) = (x-a)[f'(a) + \varepsilon(x)]$ form of the derivative sort of hints at this but at no point does he mention linear approximation
Well, that’s what that equation is, once you quantify the error.
Linear approx of composition is composition of linear approx.
04:07
The Mona Lisa Twins (originally from Austria) love 60s music, and have been doing great Beatles covers since their early teens. Their latest original song is a hilarious sarcastic piece with a music hall flavour. I Bought Myself A Politician.
@TedShifrin oh nice way to put it
It's nice to see that there are some young songwriters who aren't afraid to get political.
 
1 hour later…
05:36
our supreme court is just providing job opportunities for poor bounty hunters.
have we lost our way entirely?
You guys make want to read Rudin again >:(
i'm eyeing that four line fundamental theorem of calculus proof
i put an upholstered chair in my office today and the cat's spent all evening making it her own. sleeping on the seat. sleeping on the armrests. sleeping on the backrest.
at least cats have their priorities in order
there needs to be a condensed rudin
cats hate me
cliff's notes: rudin principles of mathematical analysis
could be worse. one of my friends is hated by birds, and there are a lot more wild birds than there are wild cats.
05:54
@copper.hat Bluntly, you and I haven’t. But yes!
Hell, it’s already telegraphic. Condensed?
:-)
An ostrich beaked me once, but it was deserved (and it hurt).
Once a crow buzzed me on Key Route Boulevard while I was running.
i thought my friend just had a phobia of birds, but then i was out with her once and she got divebombed by a crow. it wasn't even nesting season so they wouldn't normally be doing that.
apparently something like that happens once or twice a year.
Does her hair look like a nest?
05:57
you didn't hear it from me, but sort of, yes.
The Bodega Birds movie spooked me slightly.
but most birds don't orient toward nests outside of nesting season. it's baffling to me.
i love that movie.
i love all of hitchcock's north bay work. shadow of a doubt is his best.
the stuff of conspiracy theories :-)
last week's economist had an article on said topic
my daughter is a bird whisperer. she can walk into a crowd of canada geese and just hang out with them.
hissterics?
05:59
sometimes she says "hi, geese"
Amazing.
geese make the worst sounding noises at us, but tolerate her.
one of my homeworks for my kids was to estimate how much goose poop was deposited in Ocean View field per hour.
good exercise in the use of scientific notation.
:-). at least one of them found it amusing. perhaps this is why my son only talks to me for 5 mins per day
06:02
i'm really not looking forward to my daughter's teenage years. as annoying as she is now, i have a feeling i'm going to miss it.
oh yessss.
she spent half of dinner telling the cat and my wife that she was going to put both of them in the garbage truck and they would 'take you away'
whoa.
that would have got us whipped.
she was giggling hysterically. nonsense threats are one of her favorite genres to work in.
one time she kept saying to my wife, in a threatening way, "you're gonna eat a burger."
followed by laughter
i was just going to say that i dodged the bullet, as headstrong females seems to be the norm in our gene pool.
just as well i am such a great peacemaker
06:07
my daughter takes after me. i used to refuse home cooked food by accusing my mother of having put "cat food" in it
we were marketing guinea pigs for the meat factory my dad was associated with. we had to work our way though many boxes of tinned stewed beef which bore a remarkable resemblance to our dog's canned food, except our tins had no labels.
ok. i think i am done for the day. still smarting after my 1040-ES.
did your daughter get a cast?
06:25
we weren't able to get an appointment until monday. we hope that a cast is all she needs. the person in urgent care gave us the impression she'd need something more than the splint we're using now.
of course this stuff has to happen around a weekend. just like the water heater that broke on a thursday night, the air conditioner that has to break friday morning, ...
06:39
is there a function that isn't trigonometric and intersects some $f(x) = c$, with $c$ constant, at least an arbitrary number of times, and nowhere intersects $c$ more than once at a time?
i.e. all intersections are points and not intervals
you could just draw a path made up of line segments /\/\/\/\/\/\/\/\/ that keep crossing the line y = c
you choose how high they go and how spaced apart each peak or valley is from the next
hm
i'd like to add the condition that it has to be possible to encase the function in a formula, but i have no idea how to say that precisely
you can write formulas for line segments
convolve with a smooth bump function to get smooth examples
convolution is a formula
the distinction you're looking to make is unlikely to be a useful one
oh, i was also looking for smooth
i'll look into "convolution with a smooth bump function"
thanks!
In mathematics, mollifiers (also known as approximations to the identity) are smooth functions with special properties, used for example in distribution theory to create sequences of smooth functions approximating nonsmooth (generalized) functions, via convolution. Intuitively, given a function which is rather irregular, by convolving it with a mollifier the function gets "mollified", that is, its sharp features are smoothed, while still remaining close to the original nonsmooth (generalized) function.They are also known as Friedrichs mollifiers after Kurt Otto Friedrichs, who introduced them....
06:49
very neat, thanks!
btw, do you know if there is a precise statement for, "has a formula"?
because I can image drawing some lines and curves on the 2d plane in a way that it is impossible to give an analytic formulation for them
but maybe that's actually some sort of theorem
there are the 'elementary functions' you run into in formalizing the idea that the antiderivative of e^(x^2) [for example] can't be written in terms of finite comibnations of the usual precalculus functions
i would like to emphasize that this is an analytically useless distinction. it's maybe interesting if you are interested in algebra
from an analysis point of view it's quicksand
i'll start with elementary functions, thanks
07:35
A bit more about mollification
i've gotten lost in the wikipedia article and its referenced articles
under what heading is this stuff usually studied?
convolution, but some is under smoothing operators
a nice intro in your post, thumbs up
 
1 hour later…
08:52
hi,
In DTMC, I would like to show that the equivalence class for i Cl(i)={j in S / i <--> j }={i}, what must I show to proof that Cl(i)={i} Thanks
09:28
6*x^3*y^12 is a polynomial in 2 variables. What is its degree? is it 15 or 12?
09:39
0
Q: Chapter 2 Exercise 7 Question (a) Page 85 Linda J. S. Allen 2010

MohcineChapter $2$ Exercise $7$ Question (a) Page $85$ Linda J. S. Allen $2010$ $7$. Verify the following statement. Assume the period of state $i$ in a DTMC model is $\rm{d}(i)=0$. Then the set $\{i\}$ is a communication class in the Markov chain. for all $i \in S$, $d(i)=\rm{gcd}\{n/ p_{ii}^{(n)}>0...

 
2 hours later…
12:04
@shintuku :), did you complete the Chain Rule proof?
12:42
Hello, any thought how inserting vertex to adjacency matrix (size $n^2$) is needs $O(n^2)$? Adjanncy matrix will have 1 if there is an adge between two vertices and 0 otherwise or the name of the edge.
 
2 hours later…
14:36
I got it as it runs for all neighbours of a vertex, so total $\Sigma degree(v) = 2m$, where $m$ is the # of edges
Initializing all vertices to false (unvisited) takes ($O(V)$), so total time of DFS is $O(V+E)$
 
1 hour later…
15:49
@AdilMohammed without further qualification, 15. sometimes people say 'total degree' to refer to this concept (i.e.: total degree of a monomial is the sum of the powers of all variables that appear in it, total degree of a polynomial is the max of the total degree of its monomials). you can also regard that just as a polynomial in y (with coefficients in Z[x]), where its degree would be 12.
people might say 'degree in y' for that and similar for other variables.
16:05
Verify that statement: (In an irreducible DTMC, the period d > =1). Does this imply that if we have an irreducible DTMC, then d (i) > 1 for every state i in S? thanks
16:15
I know infinite dimensional vector space is considered in functional analysis and PDE. I wonder if it's also considered in topology or algebra.
Could anyone help me to solve this? I don't know how to go about it.
16:36
Well, first you should see about proving that the value is bounded below by some strictly increasing function as the input increases
Then you might have an easier time checking numbers
24
Q: Is it simply a coincidence that if you differentiate the formula for the volume of sphere you get the formula for the surface area of sphere?

AryanSonwatikarSo my question is this: $$V=\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3$$ And, $$\frac{dV}{dr}=4\pi r^2=SA$$ Is this a coincidence or are there some mathematical hoodoos that I'm unaware of? P.S. are there any more tags that I should use?

Derivative of a volume of a sphere is a surface area and same is true to a circle $d/dr (\pi r^2) = 2\pi r$. Is this something generally true?
if you didn't have bright ideas you could also just begin checking numbers. you have to check a number of them :) but if you organize the calculation each one is fairly quick
and after a short while you'd end up with the foundations of a proof that you've checked all cases that you need to check
16:55
@leslietownes Thanks. Yeah I did this brute force method. Usually when I brute force things the mark scheme shows a one liner solution to the problem and that is often gut wrenching. But this time the mark scheme did the same thing
00:00 - 17:0017:00 - 00:00

« first day (4057 days earlier)      last day (1261 days later) »