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03:04
03:50
Suppose $y = \phi(x)$ is an implicit function of $y$ for $f:\mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}$
any way to think geometrically about the fact that $\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x} (a) = -\frac{\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}}{\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}} (\langle a, \phi(a)\rangle)$?
04:24
@shintuku If $f$ was linear (affine) what would the formula be?
I just came across an old answer of mine that contained egregious errors. Very annoying.
e.g., if the graph of $f$ was a plane?
Suppose $f:\mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}$ was linear. Then it must be of the form $f(x,y) = ax+by$. What would $\phi$ be then?
Note that ${\partial f(x,y) \over \partial x} = a$ and similarly for the other.
I think that "steadily increasing" and "monotonically increasing" mean the same thing. Am I right in saying that?
we'd get $y = \frac{-ax}{b}$
The term steadily increasing is a bit ambiguous, monotonically increasing has a (reasonably) well defined mathematical meaning.
@shintuku That should give some geometric perspective...
04:31
@copper.hat Hi copper! I didn't know that steadily was ambiguous. :(
hm, i'll continue meditating on it, thanks
@shin: I think some gradient should turn out to be perpendicular to some level set, if I am not mistaken.
@Koro I would think it ambiguous in a mathematical context. I could be mistaken too.
I checked my book again, steadily increasing/decreasing is defined exactly as one would define monotonically increasing/decreasing so both are the same. :)
I have never seen the term steadily increasing used in a mathematical context.
04:39
I agree with @copper.
Most likely this is not a serious mathematics text.
Koro's comment about the gradient of $f$ being orthogonal to $f(x,y)=c$ is the whole point. What then is the slope of the curve at a point?
Other than that, the rigorous argument for the formula is just chain rule.
This is, in fact, part of the implicit function theorem.
@shintuku The main point of the linear function is to note that $\phi'(y) =- { { \partial f(x,y) \over \partial x} \over { \partial f(x,y) \over \partial y} }$.
@TedShifrin right, this is to prove the properties of the gradient on level curves denoted by the implicit function. i'm just wondering how come someone would get the idea that it is an application of the chain rule
@copper.hat i'm working on that idea, trying to do plane visualizations hehe
because $f(\phi(y),y) = 0$.
while the proof is a little detailed, the idea is straightforward. Just approximate by linear and solve.
Actually, it’s $y=\phi(x)$ here, isn’t it?
The chain rule proof appears several times in my videos.
Ah sorry, I goofed.
04:45
If you know about directional derivatives, this is a horrid way to understand the gradient.
Most multivariable treatments are very poor.
hm, you do have some videos on the implicit function theorem, i'll recheck those. thanks for the reference
The implicit function theorem has a cute application (in appropriate context, of course) to showing differentiability of the solutions of an ode.
btw, were you suggesting understanding it through directional derivatives instead? @TedShifrin
Absolutely.
hm, how would that go? (if you have time of course, and if it's covered in the lectures i'm going through them atm)
04:53
Yes, the lecture on the gradient explains it all. If you want rigor, go back to actual definitions of differentiability.
alright, thanks!
05:08
@copper.hat In the text A course on Pure Mathematics by GH Hardy, the term is used :)
05:25
Almost A century old …
yes :)
A lot of stuff has improved since then.
steadily increasing sounds cool though :)
06:27
Hi!
If I have a diagonal matrix of order n, let's say what should be the maximum possible number of zeroes in it?
@robjohn Sorry professor, it has been killing me for a while. I know it should be n^2- n but let's say if it is zero matrices then it should be n^2 right? Why don't we take the worst-case possible i.e. considering zero matrix?
@KumarShuvam what do you mean "order n"?
I mean n*n matrix
is that "rank n"?
no It is n by n matrix
well, if it really means "$n\times n$", then there are at most $n^2$ zeros. If it means "rank $n$", then there are at most $n^2-n$
06:34
What is rank professor?
your text has not mentioned the rank of a matrix?
In linear algebra, the rank of a matrix A is the dimension of the vector space generated (or spanned) by its columns. This corresponds to the maximal number of linearly independent columns of A. This, in turn, is identical to the dimension of the vector space spanned by its rows. Rank is thus a measure of the "nondegenerateness" of the system of linear equations and linear transformation encoded by A. There are multiple equivalent definitions of rank. A matrix's rank is one of its most fundamental characteristics. The rank is commonly denoted by rank(A) or rk(A); sometimes the parentheses are not...
If the matrix is invertible its rank is the same as each dimension
so an invertible $n\times n$ matrix has rank $n$
Oh! I understand it now :)
Thank you professor :)
I'm implementing arrow code now
Will post screenshots when it's working
06:46
Hey everyone!
@Mircea hey homie!
^_^
I have a quick question and I was hoping someone in here could help
let me guess, it's about math
indeed it is lol
You've got major math addiction issues, and you need help getting your fix
shoot
06:48
Do you guys know which of these grows faster?
C^O(n^2) or n^O(n)
you got me lol
where C is a constant, like 2
@Mircea are you looking for proof?
of one or the other
not really
one or the other
Then just plot them using desmos
I was hoping someone in here had some intuition that would spare me the numerical calculations:-)
The crossing point of the functions will depend upon the three constants involved
Intuitively the one on the right grows faster
06:50
really it's (2n-3)^O(n) vs 4^O(n^2)
Let $C \gt 1$
Now let $D$ be the constant of $O(n^2)$
And $E$ the constant of $O(n)$
So you want to prove that for some $n \gt 0$, you have $C^{D n^2} \lt n^{En}$
Take the $\log_C$ of both sides
for all n greater than some N actually
Well I think that would follow after you just show that one such exists
alright
That gives you: $\iff Dn^2 \lt En \log_C(n)$
Because $\log_C$ is increasing
and thus order preserving
Apparently then the one on the left grows faster
since the one on the right is $O(n \log n)$
and the one on the left is $O(n^2)$
06:57
hmm, yeah
Counter intuitively it seems (to me)
Did that help you?
yes, actually! I think this is the result I was hoping for :)
and yeah, good idea taking log on both sides
Well also make sure you graphically plot an example for $C, D,E = 2$
I will do!
To double check the argument
06:58
yeah, thanks!
You're welcome, mon
Fight the power
Hello @robjohn Lend me some of your intelligence.
Actually if all of the people in this room lend half of their intelligence to me, I would be quite decent.
haha
@Mircea are you studying algorithms or analytic NT?
well, I was trying to prove a combinatorial conjecture of one of my professors
disprove*
and I think I just succeded :-)
07:02
Nice
What's the conjecture?
Is it to do with graph theory?
His conjecture was that you can turn a full binary tree with leaves numbered from 1 to n to any other full binary tree with leaves from 1 to n using only tree rotations and swaps in O(n) time
and I turned this into a grapg theory problem by noticing that if every tree is a node then it has exactly degree 2n-3
What do they mean by "turn a full binary tree with ... into another one"?
O(n) steps, sorry
where each step is either a tree rotation, or swapping one node's left and right subtrees
Does this binary tree contain numbers?
only in the leaves
you can think of it as combining all numbers from 1 to n via some binary operation
07:06
So since it's a full tree, it looks just like a perfect pyramid?
that is associative and commutative\
sorry, I meant full as in each node has either 2 or 0 children
it's actually better to think of this in terms of ways to combine n terms via this one binary operation
and each step is applying commutativity once or associativity once
and the conjecture is that you can turn any such term into an equivalent term in O(n) steps, where a step is either an application of a commutativity law or one of an assoc law
Okay, so take trivial tree with 1 node
clearly the conjecture is true for that case
1 leaf node
yeah, but for suffficiently large n it breaks down it seems
if you represent all such trees with n numbered leaves by a node in a huge graph then each node will have degree n-1+n-2
because you have n-1 internal nodes that you can swap at, and n-2 internal edges that you can rotate the tree along
07:11
Welp, I'm confused, back to coding
sorry, I guess I made things harder
No, you did good. I just am not very well versed in your area
a whiteboard would certainly help :-)
yes, like ziteboard
fair enough
what's that?
You know how there are a ton of collaborative drawing tools, ziteboard is one of the nicer, simpler, working ones
Use q.uiver.app for CD's
but has no collaborative invite feature
here are the 2 operations you can do on the trees
I was half expecting a rick roll
07:24
Did a lot of work on it today so it's a lot further than that feature wise
Started arrow code today as well, which is really adapting old code to new project since I wrote bezier arrow code before with all the auto positioned text and control points posititing nicely along node sides
nice, looks interesting
I'm not sure what's supposed to happen though
Well, you'll see when it's all done
and released
Lots to code on it
haha, goodluck
basically allows you to peruse CD's (commutative diagrams) and math definitions in general
interesting. Can you let me know when it's done?
07:26
It's a spacecraft for viewing math abstractly
@Mircea send an email to fruitfulapproach (google)
just send me an email at osebe2 (at) illinois (dot) edu
and I'll keep a list or you could just star the repository on github
gotcha
Do you have a github account?
yeah, MirceaS
07:27
Okay, let me post link here
That's the code, description is old though
I'll keep an eye on it :)
I gtg now
see ya later\
will do
lol
that's cause you are one
;)
@Koro hey Koro, earlier you said that, if $y = \phi(x)$ is an implicit function of $y$ for $f:\mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}$, the fact $\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x}(a) = -\frac{\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}}{\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}}(\langle a, \phi(x)\rangle)$ was related to the property of gradients being orthogonal to level sets
how come that fact reminded you of that?
Probably because of determinant
ad - bc = 0
hm.. sorry if this is obvious, but why is the determinant involved here?
07:36
Is the fraction $(\partial f/\partial x)/(\partial f/\partial y)$ a fraction?
If so, bring the denominator to the left
and you get the form AD - BC for appropriate assigments of the variables
@shintuku
hm, $\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}(\langle a, \phi(x)\rangle) \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x}(a) - \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}(\langle a, \phi(x) \rangle = 0$ does look like a determinant
but, does this have any conceptual relationship with the gradient and level curves?
again sorry if this is obvious
My mistake, I thought there were some relation with orthogonality
and 2D det
If you convert the dot product into a determinant maybe...
then dot product of two 2-3D vectors is zero iff the vectors are orthogonal
So <a,b>.<d,-c> = ad - bc
What is $\phi(x)$ defined as?
it is the implicit function of $y$ defined $y = \phi(x)$ from $f:\mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}$
How do $f, \phi$ relate in this context?
by virtue of the implicit function theorem, $f$ satisfies the properties for $\phi$ to be the implicit function of $y$. so visually speaking the graph of $\phi$ looks like $f = 0$
08:13
@shin: $f(x,y)=c$ is a level set of f. Gradient of f =0 so $1.f_x +f_y y’ =0$ which gives $y’=-\frac{f_x}{f_y}$
08:27
$0=\mathrm{d}f=\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\mathrm{d}x+\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\mathrm{d}y$ so $\frac{\mathrm{d}y}{\mathrm{d}x}=-\frac{\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}}{\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}}$
another take
One problem I saw today is to compute $147^{247}\bmod 347$ by an application of Egyptian multiplication method
In mathematics, ancient Egyptian multiplication (also known as Egyptian multiplication, Ethiopian multiplication, Russian multiplication, or peasant multiplication), one of two multiplication methods used by scribes, is a systematic method for multiplying two numbers that does not require the multiplication table, only the ability to multiply and divide by 2, and to add. It decomposes one of the multiplicands (preferably the smaller) into a sum of powers of two and creates a table of doublings of the second multiplicand. This method may be called mediation and duplation, where mediation means halving...
Here's how they did. Basically factorize the number and add up
Using this, any bright ideas to compute that?
09:22
@BalarkaSen if it converges, what is the limit? I don't see which direction the tangent vector at 0 should face
10:01
Can anyone tell me how to write the form of a double well potential looks like in 2 dimensions
10:25
If you take a bounded metric space which is also an analytic manifold, embed it in Minkowski 2-space and perform a linear map (squeeze map) i.e. (ax,y/a) for parameter a how do you describe the continuous deformation of the metric?
 
1 hour later…
11:45
Nothing you do matters because universe will end up in entropy state.
12:11
@BannedUser agreed
consider the boolean expression
$(A+B+CC')(A+BB'+C)(AA'+B+C')$
Something I'm reading assumes that their function $f:\mathbb{R}^d\to\mathbb{R}$ is of the form $$ |\nabla f (x) | \leq C(1+f(x)) ~~~\forall ~x $$ and some $C>0$
what kind of assumption is this on the derivative of $f$ ?
my book simply writes that its equivalent to
$(A+B+C)(A+B+C')(A+B+C)(A+B'+C)(A+B+C')(A'+B+C')$
how?
13:06
Please if you have time, give my question a thought:
1
Q: Prove we need $\Theta(1+\alpha)$ search time in hash chaining

AvraI would to discuss a proof found in CLRS book please. Theorem: In a hash table in which collisions are resolved by chaining, a successful search takes time $\Theta(1 + \alpha)$, on the average, under the assumption of simple uniform hashing. Proof: Assume we $n$ elements are equally likely to be ...

Anyone have recommendations on a proof-writing book?
I need a preliminary book to learn how to write proofs using formal logic so that I can write proofs in math.
You dont need a book for that @RonaldVilliers
youl learn as you go
imo
Are you a maths student?
I'm trying to learn from the ground up so to speak
And I started an abstract algebra text and I can't seem to get past the preliminary section because I can't write the first proof lol
Then just focus on an area of math you want to learn the "proof writing" will come naturally as you learn the material
I think I'm missing the plot when it comes to proofs though, I have a very good intuition when it comes to theorems and concepts like in physics or day to day
but the concept of writing a proof is foreign
semi related anyone have book recommendations for epistemology
13:56
Given the following frequency distribution of income of employees.
Income ₹/month. No. of employees
$0 - 250. 12
250 - 500 20
500 - 750 23
750 - 1,000 15
1,000 - 1,250 10
1,250 - 1,500. 20$
The median income of employees is : $695.65$ (Correct Answer). Can someone explain this to me pls, i used $n/2$ formula here bcz even no. of entries, which gives 750, the wrong answer. Thanks!
14:07
Hello above, why we have the bound as $\frac{e^k}{k^k}$ please where $n, k \in \mathbb{Z}$?
14:21
I mean how do we know that $e^k/k^k > (1-1/n)^{n-k}$ please
@Avra that's not what they're claiming. note that $(ne/k)^k(1/n)^k=e^k/k^k$, so all they're arguing is that the $(1-1/n)^{n-k}$ factor is smaller than $1$
thus $(e^k/k^k)(1-1/n)^{n-k}< e^k/k^k$
(and $1-1/n$ between 0 and 1, so any integer power of it is definitely also between 0 and 1.)
@Semiclassical. Thank you. I understand that $ (1-1/n)^{n-k} <1$, but also $(e^k/k^k)$ could also be <1
This is how I understand it
sure? but that's not relevant
$(ne/k)^k(1/n)^k(1-1/n)^{n-k} = (e/k)^k(1-1/n)^{n-k}$, and this quantity is bounded above by $(e/k)^k$
So, I am not sure how they concluded that it's bounded by $(e^k/k^k)$ If both are <1, how you can decide please that one is larger than the other?
This confuses me
literally all they're doing is saying that $a>0$ and $0<b<1$ therefore $ab<a$.
there may be a further bound on $a=(e/k)^k$. that's irrelevant here: they're only saying what the bound on $b=(1-1/n)^{n-k}$ implies
14:32
Oh!
I see :/
I got you. Fraction of fraction is less than a fraction
OMG
Is that correct please?
yep
if you like, you can rearrange their inequality as $$\left(\frac{e}{k}\right)^k\left[1-(1-1/n)^{n-k}\right]>0$$
You gave me confidence :/
Mathematicians gave confidence in my case
Thank you
@kunalCh. i'm not sure how you'd be able to get a well-defined median in the first place here: the distribution seems to be on your bins, not on the actual values. however: there's 90 employees, so you want to look at the 45th and 46th ones. both of those land in the 500-750 bin, so the median should be somewhere between 500 and 750.
np @avra
but without knowing the actual values i have no idea how the median is supposed to be found here
typo: 100 employees, therefore 50th and 51st employees. but these still land in the 500-750 bin
(to say the issue more concretely: suppose all 23 employees in the 500-750 range made exactly 501 dollars. then the median would be 501. but they could instead all make 749 dollars and thus the median would be 749. the bin counts are the same either way)
15:19
What is identity in a set all bounded complex-valued functions on any arbitrary set?
15:29
Hello, in the above integral, I know we can write $n+y = n(1+y/n)$, so we can get the first part $e^{n \log n}$, but how we get the second part $n\log{(n+y)}$ please
@AdamWarlock identity in which sense?
avra, that equality is not going to hold unless n = 1
the RHS is e^(n ln n) * [the LHS] or n^n * [LHS]
@leslietownes. I am not able to get it too, no conditions as well on $n=1$. I just realized that we can replace $n\log{(n+y)}$ with $n\log{(n(1+y/n))}$, so we can get $e^{n\log{n}}$, but I am not able to get the second part $n\log{(n+y)}$
you can certainly rewrite n ln(n+y) in all sorts of ways, but that's not what's going on in the 'equation' above. it literally just adds n ln n to the exponent. ignoring the integral for a minute (which does not change much) it's asserting that e^A = e^(B+A)
unless i'm missing something
whatever rewriting and identities you use, you wouldn't wind up with that
15:45
@Semiclassical thank you for responding. At present, i don't have any reasoning for any counterargument but both 749 & 501 are not present in the said multiple-choice-question's options. It's just that i am deliberately fitting reasoning for the right answer, bcz entrance question's official keys posses high confidence for to be correct. I get your point though.
@Thorgott sorry I forgot to mention. I mean identity considering the composition of functions.
so you have a function from some arbitrary set to the complex numbers
how do you compose two of these?
:-( then it might be under multiplication operation
is it the constant function
1
What are you actually talking about?
@leslietownes I was just about to mention that. I almost didn't see yours (without MathJax)
15:56
i should be better about mathjax
perhaps a lot of other things too, but specifically mathjax
if that's your ring structure, yes
Oh, ring identity. I thought you were looking for identities holding for functions. Clarity is important.
16:44
@kunalCh. what options are you given? If it’s phrased as “which of these is a possible median”, and only one option lands in the range 500-750, then that’s the answer
But if it’s asking you, for instance, whether it’s 550 or 700, then I have not idea what logic they’re using
16:57
@leslietownes. Thank you
17:21
@Koro @robjohn thanks a lot for the answers!
@RonaldVilliers the one thing you need for proof writing is basic propositional logic. then just start working on either a linear algebra book or a real analysis book
@RonaldVilliers if you search higher up in this chat room, TedShifrin posted one of his as a response to a request for basic propositional logic by user SAJW
 
1 hour later…
18:43
sunglasses
I think a more appropriate picture is one with a particular point $(x',y')$ on the curve $f(x,y) = c$ and a tangent line to the curve passing through that point.
The equation of the tangent line is ${\partial f(x',y') \over \partial x} (x-x') + {\partial f(x',y') \over \partial y} (y-y') = 0$.
19:02
Total crap. Throw the book out.
oh right, i need to add error and the fact $(df/dy)dy$ and $(df/dx)dx$ are additive inverses
thanks for the tip
might as well use $\Delta x, \Delta y$ for rigour
This truly is meaningless crap.
the level curve has no relevance here.
Lunchtime for me, thank goodness.
19:34
I'm assuming this is in the context of the implicit function theorem.
19:50
hm, i'm tired. can someone remove the above comment
 
1 hour later…
21:18
I am trying to solve a separation of variables PDE problem using Complex Fourier Series. So far I have $u = \sum_{-\infty}^\infty (A_n r^{-n} + B_n r^n)(C_n e^{-n\theta i} + D_n e^{n\theta i})$. I think I am algebraically allowed to just drop half of each factor to get something like $u = \sum_{-\infty}^\infty B_n r^n D_n e^{n\theta i}$, even before applying the final boundary condition...
because each of the $A_n$ terms can be lumped into one of the $B_n$ terms, and each of the $C_n$ terms and be lumped into one of the $D_n$ terms (and then I can obviously lump $B_n D_n$). Is this correct? The weird thing for me is that if I use the same argument to arrive at $u = \sum_{-\infty}^\infty A_n r^{-n} D_n e^{n\theta i}$, the final answer should meaningfully differ.
It just feels like math is too radically difficult to tackle
I just read Erdos's proof of the infinitude of the primes and I don't think I could ever come up with something like that
@shintuku the df/dy and df/dx in that diagram need to be partials. However, judging from the hand-drawn arrow, I am guessing that the sophistication of the typesetter was not all that great.
or is that your diagram? (sorry, if so) It still needs partials, however.
@shintuku Ah, it is your diagram. My previous comment was assuming that diagram was from a book.
I am assuming you are digramming something like this.
@leslietownes. How about now please?
Can you still figure out how we can get $n\log{(n+y)}-y$ in the second equation?
21:39
@robjohn i've added the partials, thank you very much for the feedback
@Avra the last step you are multiplying by $e^{n\log(n)}=n^n$. The last $=$ is wrong.
@robjohn. Thanks again for responding. So you think this is wrong?
I am stuck with this equation
only the last step
Yep!
This is a video online with thousands of views
I don't know what that means either. I am stuck with the second equation
if it shows exactly what you have at the last step, it is wrong.
@Avra it is just a substitution
21:44
I understand first line, but second line I understand that there was a substitution of $n\log{n\times(1+y/n)}$
@avra i still don't understand the second line. the first line makes sense, it's a change of variable. the second line is wrong
That was the trick, but still I don't know how the second term in the last equation after the second equality came
if you're trying to prove Gamma(n+1) = n Gamma(n) the usual way is to use integration by parts (where you differentiate x^n)
@leslietownes. That's how I did it until you have $n!$
Thanks
I was just trying to understand this anyway, but I just got stuck with it
Another cute approach is to start from the integral $1/c=\int_0^\infty e^{-c x}\d,dx$ which is valid for $c>0$
If you differentiate both sides w/r/t $c$ and evaluate at $c=1$, you get $-1=-\int_0^\infty xe^{-x}\,dx$
If you differentiate twice before evaluating, it becomes $2=\int_0^\infty x^2 e^{-x}\,dx$
(If you don’t like the minus signs, replace $c\to -c$ and evaluate at $c=-1$ instead)
And in general the $n$th derivative gives $\Gamma(n+1)=n!$ at c=1
Huzzah for reckless differentiation under the integral sign
21:58
if we have $f: \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}$ and $\phi: \mathbb{R}^{n-1} \to \mathbb{R}$, strictly speaking $f(a, \phi(a))$ with $a \in \mathbb{R}^{n-1}$ and $\phi(a) \in \mathbb{R}$ isn't correct notation, no? i'm trying to get $f$ to take as input the vector which is the concatenation of $a$ and $\phi(a)$, which does indeed end up being an element of $\mathbb{R}^n$ (unlike, it seems to me, $\langle a, \phi(a) \rangle$)
the only option seems to me to let $a = \langle r_1, \cdots, r_{n-1} \rangle$ and define a new vector $\vec v = \langle r_1, \cdots, r_{n-1}, a \rangle$, then to consider $f(\vec v)$
yes, but nobody cares
there is no harm in living a life where cartesian products are taken to be associative
swell thanks
@Semiclassical. Thanks
22:31
this is an irritatingly vague question which likely has an answer in the negative. First, a familiar construction...
Suppose I start with a Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$. Then the set of operators $B_2(\mathcal{H})$ on said Hilbert space (with finite Hilbert-Schmidt norm) is itself a Hilbert space, isomorphic to $\mathcal{H}^*\times \mathcal{H}$, with respect to the Hilbert-Schmidt inner product $\langle A,B\rangle_{HS} = \text{Tr}(A^* B)$.
The vague question that's bugging me: Is there any sense in which this Hilbert space is 'special'? My guess would be "no", since Hilbert spaces of a given cardinality are unique up to isomorphism.
22:53
I guess I show my physics by writing it as AB rather than AB
The * are special in markup
woops
"by conjugating on A rather than B"
$A^\ast B$ rather than $AB^\ast$.
yup
Paul Garrett has some remarks here which seem pertinent but above my head
e.g. "Thus, the Hilbert-Schmidt tensor product cannot be a Hilbert-space tensor product"
23:09
(The reason I'm thinking about this that the usual axioms in QM start with a Hilbert space and then talk about observables as self-adjoint operators on said space. If one transitions to the density matrix formalism, then everything becomes operators and the underlying vector space stops being as relevant. So I'm wondering if there's a way to get to observables as self-adjoint operators without worrying about what said operators act on.)
@shintuku It is sloppy notation, but it is in common use.
thanks!
semi the author is using a categorical definition of 'tensor product.' many people who work with hilbert spaces but are perhaps not as interested in axiomatizing QM would refer to the completion of the algebraic tensor product that he talks about at the beginning as the hilbert space tensor product.
the fact that this doesn't match some definition in terms of universal properties is what it is, but i think it overstates the case to say that the hilbert space tensor product is 'incorrectly portrayed' as a tensor product.
just like an algebraic integer doesn't have to be an integer, a hilbert space tensor product doesn't have to be a tensor product.
23:17
hmm
it somewhat bugs me when people pretend that everything has to be the specialization of a general notion and that something is going wrong when it isn't.
language is confusing
i would never have expected the tensor product of hilbert spaces to satisfy the condition stated at the beginning with bilinear maps.
it's a little more interesting, as he suggests, with algebras of operators acting on a space. there, you may often have a number of genuinely different 'tensor products' to take and operator people are kind of used to this. i don't think they would throw all but one of them out, or say that tensor products don't exist because of some bilinear map thing.
that seems like just trying to transport the wrong intuition from the finite dimensional case to the infinite dimensional case
it does make for a catchy title of a note, though. can't fault him for that. :)
23:39
I mean, why call it a tensor product if it doesn't behave like any of the other countless things called tensor product
because it's a completion of an algebraic tensor product?
people do usually put in adjectives that specify the nature of the completion and do not just say 'the tensor product'
so to me it's like algebraic integers not having to be integers
23:53
Speaking of bizarre (nonsensical?) terminology and concept, check this out.
yeah i saw that, weird

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