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00:20
@robjohn Thanks, but doesn’t save on phone neither! :)
01:12
!!
I did not see I deleted some lines
hoovered them right up, you did. and just after chopping them up.
Given $r= (ak +b) \bmod{b}$, $s=(al+b) \bmod{p}$. Professor Ted always tell me that I have something missing!
I see now
How we can get b from r,s please above?
$b=(r−ak) \bmod{p}$
the + b in (ak + b) mod b strikes me as unusual. it's the same relation as r = ak mod b.
sorry!
OMG!!
recovering the modulus b from the other congruence also strikes me as unusual, but modular arithmetic was never my strong suit and i have thought about this for about five seconds only.
is there an application or problem in the background that boiled down to this?
01:16
$ r=(ak+b) mod ~ p$
s=(al+b)modp
$k≠l$
$a≠0$
I should delete everything and start over
This is a complete mess more than chaos theory
Given, $r=(ak+b) \bmod{p}$, $s=(al+b) \bmod{p}$. Also given that $k\ne l$ and $a \ne 0$. Also $a,b, k$ are integers and $p$ is prime. How we can get $b=(r-ak) \bmod{p}$ please?
@leslietownes. You did not study number theory before?
This is very popular topic in number theory I guess please?
i studied it and even taught it, i just have a difficulty wrapping my mind around systems of these sorts of equations after too long a time. i had no intuition for it, it was symbol fiddling for me.
throw some geometry in there, that's how you spark my interest.
haha
fine. Yeah every mathematican likes certain area and not all
My brother's wife loves differential equations the most...
eww. there's no accounting for taste. i guess there's no law against that.
what was the most annoying math topic you have ever studied if any please!
ooh, tough one.
if i'm being honest, beyond the basics, i didn't like algebra very much. once we were doing quotients of multivariable polynomial rings and drawing icky diagrams, time out. this is not a criticism of algebra, just my reaction to it.
i liked the stuff i took in undergrad but then in grad school realized that i was probably going to not like what came next. thankfully it was optional. i took one class 'for culture.'
01:30
hahaha
@leslietownes WHAT T F !?
this isn't leslie, ted. this is the guy who broke into leslie's house when he wasn't home. the computer was on.
hahaha
It seems that this is Prof Ted favourite subject?
avra, yes. my general 'brand' is to lightly discourage the use of geometry. i am mostly being ridiculous, but it's rooted in something real. maybe high school. i should therapize these feelings and why i am so sarcastic about them.
@leslietownes That makes more sense.
Probably Olivia.
01:36
You are talking complex analysis high level language now that I am not able to understand
@TedShifrin. I am just saying @leslietownes language is too complex :/ It needs math expert to understand
01:55
Geometry is useful for immediately grasping the intuition and application of algebra. Algebra is useful for manipulating your intuition and application of algebra.
i'm not sure that 'therapize' is even a word, let alone a word for something that i could do to myself.
avra, i try to speak more clearly when discussing math. much of the above is just me making jokes.
02:12
It would seem English has no verb for therapy, but German does.
It could probably pass as a sort of inverse of gerund as noun to verb. "I can therapy you."
@Avra This is a weird question
@AMDG wiktionary does list 'therapy' as a verb, but only rarely
@AMDG What's the German word?
there is also therapize, but i can't say i've ever seen it used
02:16
eh, I've never seen that used
I'd just use behandeln
So i'd say English does have verbs for therapy, but they're altogether uncommon
/shrug
I'd admit I've only seen the word therapise as an English verb, but that I've rarely seen used
Well, it isn't like there's a committee for the <native> language lol
Aye, not like in France
02:19
for demonstration, compare the Google ngram viewers:
[therapy](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=therapy&year_start=1800&year_end=2019&corpus=26&smoothing=3&direct_url=t1%3B%2Ctherapy%3B%2Cc0) vs [therapize/therapise](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=therapise%2Ctherapize&year_start=1800&year_end=2019&corpus=26&smoothing=3&direct_url=t1%3B%2Ctherapise%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2Ctherapize%3B%2Cc0)
Weird that the correct spelling sees less usage
hrm. i don't get why those embeddings didn't work
I keep forgetting what a radix is
i think American english tends to use -ize endings whereas British uses -ise
Yeah sorry, I was being silly
02:22
what i find interesting is the early blip of 'therapise' in the mid 1800's
British tends to use French spellings. I'm not sure where z popped in for America.
Would be interesting to see if the British committed some heinous war crime around that time
there's actually a whole wikipedia article on this one issue
Oxford spelling (also Oxford English Dictionary spelling, Oxford style, or Oxford English spelling) is a spelling standard that prescribes the use of British spelling in combination with the suffix -ize in words like realize and organization, in contrast to use of -ise endings. Oxford spelling is used by many British-based academic/science journals (for example, Nature) and many international organizations (for example, the United Nations and its agencies). It is common for academic, formal, and technical writing for an international readership (see Usage). In digital documents, Oxford spelling...
with the logic apparently being that the British use of French spellings is actually the more modern one
displacing older use of -ize
That's brilliant
Typical of the Brits to try and distinguish themselves from other organisations
I don't see the point of innovating that. It's the same either way is not any clearer.
I think I'm starting to see numbers more properly in terms of what they're made of, especially after having contemplated more about division.
02:26
oh, wait, i misunderstood that
it isn't in some american english dictionaries although a lot of online dictionaries have it in one form or the other.
i'm glad that this began with my need to therapize away my fear of geometry.
the one oddity i ran into lately was "focussed"
which looks just wrong to my eyes
but it's regarded as a variant spelling in most places
a lot of double letters in English words fell off the boat on the trip across the Atlantic
while travel[l]ing, i should say.
the double-s makes more sense to me, shortening the u
¯_(ツ)_/¯
02:28
yeah
and, say, programming vs. programing? first one > second for me
yeah I agree there too
we kept the double m in that.
even as we say program not programme
but removed it and the e from programme
jinx
Based on my understanding of grammar, if a vowel is intended to be pronounced according to its modification by the presence of two or more vowels, then there should be no more than one consonant separating the two of them.
02:30
Strange, we write Dsuinks instead of jinx
the table they have comparing British, Oxford, Canadian, and American spelling conventions is neat
Analogue vs analog
analoogie.
Only American uses "behavior" rather than "behaviour", and only British uses "organisation" rather than "organization".
02:32
And then there's anagogy.
@AMDG That's not grammar. That's orthography / spelling.
Yeah, that's what I meant.
It's a common joke in the UK that people from the US are too stupid to spell things the "proper" way
The reality is that we need the extra letters to get the words past our bad teeth
the weird one to me is aluminum vs aluminium
@EdwardEvans I think that Webster felt very much the same about the Brits some 300 years ago when he wrote his dictionary.
@Semiclassical But the words are pronounced completely differently in the US and the UK.
02:34
The British never find me humorous.
yes? that's why i spelt them differently
what's weird isn't that we say them differently, though
humorous is actually correct in both orthographies
There are historic reasons for the differences. I'll see if I can dig up a reference.
Well the joke is that they spell it humour.
it's that both versions of the word came out almost simultaneously, and there's no evident reason why America got one vs. the other
02:35
Vanity I guess idk
The Oxford English Dictionary reports that in a lecture he delivered in 1809 and published in 1810, Davy does not use the term alumium, but refers only to good old alumina as alumine. By 1812, Davy had revised his coinage, opting instead for aluminum. But the previous year another scientist, in a review of another Davy lecture, had coined aluminium, with the nice -ium that was so familiar in potassium and sodium (which, incidentally, Davy had also coined).
yes, that's where i'm quoting from :>
night
Good night
02:37
Well I'd think if it were to be more like potassium and sodium, the stresses would be more like a-lu-mi'-ni-um.
Good night Xander
my guess is that the usage probably reflects pre-existing usage patterns for other words
so that aluminum slotted into the American vocab whereas aluminium into the British
Meh. It would seem to me that these things are just conventions the same the programming languages have conventions, some of them even idiomatic, or more properly called, idiotic.
So to my mind the M-W article doesn't really answer the question. It says where both words came from, but it says nothing about why American English got one and British English got the other. (Especially because both usages arose within a year or so.) Hence, weird.
Aye strange indeed
Seems like the British spellings were made to artifically preserve etymology
right
whereas the American ones just reflect usage
02:41
That ends up being a big culprit for the non-phonetic-ness of other languages
A good example is Faroese, where the official orthography was only actually written down in the 1800s some time and the orthography was completely based on old Norse etymology, making the language more or less entirely unphonetic
Only about 10 people speak it though, so who cares
today's XKCD slipped by me at first. had to look at the alt-text to get it: xkcd.com/2509
i love that. xkcd is very hit or miss for me but that one hit.
yeah, that one was delightfully subtle
03:02
reminds me a bit of cliff stoll's video on measuring the area of a piece of paper. youtube.com/watch?v=9yUZTTLpDtk
03:22
but sometimes xkcd deserves r/iamverysmart
So many removals.
@Euler2 That one seems to be parodying r/iamverysmart-type people, no? Like, each person in that comic thinks they're smarter than the others, but they're actually all capable of thought
yeah
i don't like people who think they are very smart
what makes them think so
03:40
if there's an element i don't like about it, it's the notion that everyone in the car feels like that
maybe the car is going to an xkcd fan convention
:)
socrates could be there
there's certainly a proportion of the population that does think like that, mind
but that could be just as well conveyed by, say, having only three of the five thinking that
relevant
04:10
Somebody want to talk adjoints briefly with me? :)....I'll give you some candy....
04:30
what kind of adjoints? the word is a tad overloaded.
I don't even think it is even talking about the adjoint yet, this is the idea prior to mentioning the adjoint:
So is this theorem saying that for every linear transformation I can characterize it in terms of an innner product?
what kind of candy? let's talk about the important stuff.
you should know better than to take candy from strangers.....
I should know better than to discuss adjoints with strangers, too
more specifically, for any linear transformation from V into the field F, which a priori is just a linear map satisfying the axioms, you can grab a vector y in V and indeed write the linear transformation as "to compute the value of the transformation, just take the inner product of the input with the vector y"
04:35
well played...........this was a display of superior thinking...lol
@dc3rd define it on a basis first
adjoints are a social drug
i would prefer not
the proof of the theorem uses an orthonormal basis
i was instructed never to take adjoints
04:37
the poof of the adjoint
@leslietownes take them, but don't inhale
roll up and smoke adjoints where invented by Grothendieck
using an orthonormal basis is one way to do it. there are coordinate-free routes but probably overkill in the finite dimensional context. e.g. they use topological notions
and depending on what F is maybe you're stuck with just algebra anyway
We're computers in a giant computer making more computers
@dc3rd (assuming an o.n. basis) for $w=\sum\limits_j V(e_j)\,e_j$, note that $V(x)=\langle w,x\rangle$ is satisfied by each $e_j$. By linearity, it is satisfied by all $x$.
04:41
baby steps first, baby steps first......finite dimensional and defining over a basis first. THen we can get to the abstract stuff.
Just write $v_j e_j$ via Einstein notation
and arguably some of the topological proofs use g-om-t-ical notions, which are always best avoided.
I'm coding a forex expert advisor now for MetaTrader5. I've encoded a moving average cross as an expression tree. The idea is to try random such expression trees and see if one does better than the other at making profit
This falls under genetic algorithms.
If anyone codes in MQL5 I can share the code with them. Having some trouble with it
There's a bug, where it doesn't even make one buy or sell over an entire year of backtest
Though the moving averages are visually crossing
Ergh damn, I was just about to press enter to write to Ted
You can still do it, they'll get an email
04:45
he's a reverse valdemort.
Gave birth to lily and james?
possibly. i never actually read the books but know he's one of those villains who appears if you say his name too much, or something. ted will disappear if you say geometry.
s'aink like that
so this vector $y$ or from robjohn's example $w$ is a chosen fixed vector for our specific linear transformation?
Hi @Ted, I have a silly sheafy question when you're around
04:47
yes, each transformation V gets a single fixed vector associated with it.
or i guess your reference uses g for the transformation and V for the space. but it sounds like you get the point
Yes. I get the idea. Thanks for the elucidation (if that could be considered a word in that form, but I like it anyways)
Edward, just say something sacrlegious to him like "geometry doesn't exist without algebra" or "you let garlic fry in your pan before adding your other ingredients" and he will for sure return
maybe even saying Thor is always right might send him into a tizzy.....
What, sir Edward?
Hail!
Here goes: a sequence of sheaves $0 \to \mathcal{F} \to \mathcal{G}, \to \mathcal{H} \to 0$ is exact if and only if $0 \to \mathcal{F}(U) \to \mathcal{G}(U) \to \mathcal{H}(U)$ is exact and some other condition whose proof I understand
in the proof my prof shows that $\mathcal{F}(U) \to \mathcal{G}(U)$ is injective (this is easy from some diagram) and then goes on to start proving that $\mathcal{F} \to \mathcal{H}$ is the zero map and thus that $\mathcal{F}$ is contained in its kernel, and hence that $\mathcal{F}_x \cong \mathcal{H}_x$ for all $x$ (the stalks)
but I mean, this is vacuously true because the sequence is assumed to be exact, right?
oops, I mean $\mathcal{F}_x \cong \operatorname{Ker}_x$
05:01
Huh?
idfk
the formulation in the notes is really confusing, is it confusing to you too?
Oh, you corrected the nonsense.
So you mean the kernel of the map $\mathcal G\to\mathcal H$. But are we doing this on $U$ or with stalks? No, that's not right, either.
What kernel?
And what are we actually trying to do?
So we're assuming $0 \to \mathcal{F} \to \mathcal{G} \to \mathcal{H} \to 0$ is exact and we want to show that $0 \to \mathcal{F}(U) \to \mathcal{G}(U) \to \mathcal{H}(U)$ is exact
In the notes my prof writes "The injectivity of $\mathcal{F}(U) \to \mathcal{G}(U)$ follows from diagram. One shows analogously that the composition $\mathcal{F} \to \mathcal{H}$ is zero, so that $\mathcal{F} \subset \ker\{\mathcal{G} \to \mathcal{H}\}$."
05:07
Seems like he's being sloppy with sheaves versus sections on $U$.
It's very confusing lol. The next line he says "since taking stalks and taking kernels commute, the above inclusion shows that $\mathcal{F}_x \cong \ker\{\mathcal{G} \to \mathcal{H}\}_x$ for all $x$."
oops
Sounds like a hot mess to me.
Time to switch to a book then
You'll be pleased to know I'm taking complex geometry next semester :P
I don't know what your prof is using for definitions, either.
Sheaf exactness is exactness at the level of stalks, if that's what you mean
05:11
But then you need to use the definition of stalks and the sheaf axiom.
Right, he goes on to say "Exactness at $\mathcal{G}$ follows from the next lemma: let $\psi : \mathcal{F} \to \mathcal{K}$ be a sheaf injection with $\psi_x : \mathcal{F}_x \cong \mathcal{K}_x$ for all $x \in X$. Then $\mathcal{F} = \mathcal{K}$" and uses the sheaf axioms to prove this
kinda difficult to follow what he's doing
I'm still confused about the overall logic here. But I don't have the time or patience to sort this all out now.
This is standard stuff in lots of books.
Don't worry, I'll switch to some book and work it out
Thanks anyway
You're not welcome.
05:14
Since I didn't do anything.
You listened to me rant
You confirmed that it's a "hot mess", which is what I was looking for I guess
Well, it's not that bad if you just look at a decent text.
I know, I was just looking for confirmation that I'm not just being stupid and the formulation genuinely is confusing
 
2 hours later…
06:47
0
Q: Classify the groups of order $20$

love_sodam Classify the groups of order $20$ (there are five isomorphism types). $\newcommand{\semi}{\rtimes}\newcommand{\aut}{\operatorname{Aut}}$ Proof. If $G$ is abelian, $G\simeq\Bbb Z/20\simeq\Bbb Z/4\times\Bbb Z/5$ or $\Bbb Z/2\times\Bbb Z/2\times\Bbb Z/5$. Suppose $G$ is not abelian. Then by Sylow...

need a little help here
 
3 hours later…
09:25
Did Stack change it's user profile interfaces or did I click on something that I shouldn't have? It seems I can no longer stalk people and find out when they were last online... Can I revert back?
 
2 hours later…
11:28
0
Q: $\sum_{n=1}^{oo} (-1)^{n+1}(ht(n)-ht(n-1)) =^? \frac{31}{60}$

mickLet $ht(n)$ be the n th harmonic triangular number : $$ht(n) = \sum_{i=1}^{t(n)} \frac{1}{i}$$ $$ht(0)=0$$ where $t(n)$ is the n the triangular number ( $t(1) = 1, t(2) = 3 , t(3) = 6,...$ ). Now consider $$T= \sum_{n=1}^{oo} (-1)^{n+1}(ht(n)-ht(n-1))$$ Thus $T = 1 - 1/2 - 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 + 1/6 ...

 
1 hour later…
12:49
@EdwardEvans. Thanks for the reply. Given $
r=\left( ak+b \right) mod\ p,\ s=\left( al+b \right) mod\ p,\ r\ne s
$,and $ a=\left( \left( r-s \right) \left( \left( k-l \right) ^{-1}mod\ p \right) \right) mod\ p,\ b=\left( r-ak \right) mod\ p$, then why why this is a one-to-one correspondence between pairs $(a,b)$ and $(r,s)$ given that $r \ne s$, $a\ne 0$ please?
13:08
@Avra Never mind, I found the question
13:36
@robjohn. Thanks. How do you rate this question please from 1 to 10? Do you think it's easy, medium or hard?
@LearningCHelpMe No
14:09
say I have a square matrix $A$ in $\mathbb{R}^n$, and say $e_j$ is the $j$th basis vector and I want to designate the $j$th row vector of $A$. is the standard way to do this $(A^Te_j)^T$?
14:33
@robjohn. Can you please in your own words say what this question is asking for:

"How can we apply the
division method $h(k) = k \bmod{m} $to compute the hash value of the character string $r = r_0 r_1 \cdots $ without using more than a constant number of words of storage outside the string itself?"
14:50
@Avra It means that you need to create a string hashing algorithm based on mod. Your algorithm has to work on a string of any length. It has to use a fixed amount of RAM to do the calculation, it cannot use an array for temporary / partial values whose size depends on the length of the input string.
@PM2Ring. Thank you! Do you think wording is clear please?
@Avra It's clear to me, but I'm a native speaker of English, and I've been programming for decades.
They aren't asking you to write an excellent string hashing function. They just want you to write something that makes a reasonable hash.
That's pretty easy, and there's an example on Wikipedia if you get stuck.
@PM2Ring. Thanks appreciate it. I understand the solution, but it was only that part
I am wondering can someone help with this question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/4237866/…
I never do geometry :/
15:02
@Node.JS. Is this a question from Linear Algebra please?
Im confused by the definition of geodesic on wikipedia en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geodesic#Metric_geometry
if,

$$
h\left( u \right) =\left( \sum_{i=0}^{n-1}{u_i2^{ip}} \right) mod\left( 2^p-1 \right)
$$
$$
h\left( v \right) =\left( \sum_{i=0}^{n-1}{v_i2^{ip}} \right) mod\left( 2^p-1 \right)
$$

How please by Euclidean algorithm, we can get that,

$$
0\le h\left( u \right) \le 2^p-1,\ 0\le h\left( v \right) \le 2^p-1
$$
15:19
@Avra I think you've left out some important context information.
@PM2Ring. What please?
@Flows. Which part is confusing?
It's given that $u$ is a sequence of numbers and $v$ is another sequence where both $u$ and $v$ differ by only 1 number.
So, if $u=<1,2,3,4>$, then $v=<2,1,3,4>$.
Pair of numbers are swapped between $u,v$.
@Avra Well, in programming, if we say r = b mod m then that normally means that $0 \le r < m$. But in mathematics if we say $r \equiv a \mod m$ then $r$ might not be restricted like that, all we know is that $m | (a - r)$
$u,v$ differ by interchanging any two indices from $v$ and then give that to $u$ as a result. $v=<1,2,3,4>$ then we interchange $(2,3)$ of $v$. $u=<1,3,2,4>$.
@PM2Ring. Great! Thanks. This is where I got confused. It says by Euclidian algorithm we have,
$$
0\le h\left( u \right) \le 2^p-1,\ 0\le h\left( v \right) \le 2^p-1
$$
why $2^p -1$ is included above please?
Is this a typo?
Why Euclidiean algorithm is there anyway please? I don't see what rule it plays
15:30
@Avra That seems a little strange to me. But it's not wrong, since any number $<2^p-1$ is also $\le 2^p-1$. Although of course the converse is not true. ;)
Then it proceeds by saying that,
$$
-\left( 2^p-1 \right) \le h\left( u \right) -h\left( v \right) \le 2^p-1
$$
@PM2Ring. By the function $h(k) = k ~mod~2^p-1$ will give less that $2^p-1$ and not equal to it
@Avra The Euclidean algorithm usually means the algorithm for determining the GCD of two numbers. However, Euclidean division just means finding $q, r$ that solves $a = q×m + r$, with $0 \le r < m$.
residue system of $h(k)$ is $[0, \cdots, 2^p-1]$
@Avra Of course. But, for example, every number less than nine is also less than ten. Right?
Ohhh! I got the Euclidean part, it does not add anything then?
@PM2Ring. Yes!
15:34
:)
Probably, it was added for convenience of proof
Probably
Finally please, how to get
$$
-\left( 2^p-1 \right) \le h\left( u \right) -h\left( v \right) \le 2^p-1
$$
It's same strategy
if it's greater than 0, then it's greater than $-(2^p-1)$ you mentioned with 9 and 10?
I see now! Since h=
$h(v)$ residue system is $[0, \cdots, 2^p-1]$...
we can get $h(u)=0$, so we get $-(2^p-1)$
@PM2Ring. Thank you!
@Avra Correct
You need to be smart to do good mathematics. But it's even more important to be careful. Make sure that what you're reading really says what you think it does. And when writing things, make sure you don't leave out anything important, or accidentally change something.
@Avra note that $2^{ip}\equiv1\quad\left(\!\!\bmod 2^p-1\right)$
15:44
A lot of the time when you post problems in this room, you leave something out, or make some little error. And so it ends up taking much longer to solve your problem than it needs to. I'm not scolding you, I'm just trying to give you some helpful advice.
@PM2Ring. Thanks.
@PM2Ring. I will keep that in mind.
I can't imagine how hard it must be to do mathematics in a foreign language. It's hard enough doing it in my native language.
Truly awful I'd guess.
@robjohn Oh, yeah. I was going to mention that earlier, but I got distracted...
@Avra That $h$ is in those ranges seems to be by definition, though $a\bmod b$ is an integer in $[0,b)$ where $a\equiv x\pmod b$ talks about an equivalence class.
you seem to be mixing up these concepts in your questions
15:49
There's a discussion in the room archives about how in mathematics PhD programs it used to be standard to have requirements for multiple foreign languages, eg, French, German, and Russian. Some programs still do require at least some ability to read mathematics papers in one or more foreign languages.
@PM2Ring I had to read passages from a French and a German math book.
nothing more than that, though. I had taken Latin in high school and German in college, so that got me through.
@PM2Ring. Honestly, modulous is the worst topic I studied in math
@PM2Ring. It confuses me
Similar to how implicit theorem in calculus confused me
$\{1,4,7,10,13,\dots\}$ are all equivalent to $1$ mod $3$
At least with modulus you can play with small examples and see what's going on. With more abstract mathematics, that can be difficult, or simply impossible.
@PM2Ring. Not to mention, abstract math and functional analysis are nightmares for me
15:56
Modulus is very important. And it gets used a lot of use in coding. You've already seen that it gets used in hashing. It's also used in many encryption algorithms.
think of clocks
@robjohn Do you have a PhD in mathematics?
we use modulus all the time when dealing with trigonometric functions @avra
i need concrete examples to learn
since $\sin(x) = \sin(x+2\pi)$ @avra, and the same holds for all trig functions
16:01
I don't exactly need concrete examples, but I do find it harder to learn and absorb stuff without concrete examples.
If you just graph modulus, you can see what it does pretty quickly and easily.
In terms of the number, imagine the number as a string with length equal in magnitude to the number. Consider that in $x\bmod m$, all values are reduced to the range $[0,m)$. Wrap the string around after traveling a length of $m$ along the string. Continue to do this until you reach the end of the string. Measure the length of the tip to the last wrap's crease or bend. That is the modulus.
Bruh I can't do braces
orthodontics?
Unfortunately no
suppose you see $x^2 - 6x + 2$. any fast ways to see the roots are $3 \pm \sqrt{7}$ or do even math people use the quadratic formula?
I learned a method called "tictactoe" but I forgot how to do it.
16:10
i'll look it up, thanks for the tip!
the quadratic formula is surely fast enough?
I almost never use the quadratic formula. If the factorization isn't obvious, I prefer to complete the square. I only use the formula if I'm trying to solve a quadratic where the coefficients are messy expressions rather than numbers.
Also, I like using simple rational approximations for square roots, to make quick mental estimates. Eg, using $8^2 -7\cdot 3^2=1$ we have $\sqrt 7\approx 8/3$, and using the Brahmagupta identity, it's easy to generate better approximations. Of course, we can also use Newton's method, which converges faster.
nifty, but how come you work with approximations? your answers don't depend on exact values?
16:30
@shintuku I like to know the value of numbers I'm playing with. ;) Sure, I could use a calculator, but doing mental arithmetic is good brain exercise.
Also, rational approximations can be useful when you're doing geometry on a grid of pixels
cool!
btw, might anyone know why wolframalpha thinks this is true
$\int \frac{1}{x^2-6x+2} dx = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{7}}\int(\frac{1}{x-3-\sqrt{7}}-\frac{1}{x-3+\sqrt{7}})dx$
but thinks this is false:
$\int \frac{1}{x^2-6x+2} dx = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{7}}(\int\frac{1}{x-3-\sqrt{7}}dx-\int\frac{1}{x-3+\sqrt{7}}dx)$
?
16:55
indefinite integrals always seem like a recipe for ambiguity to me...
hm, well $1/(x^2-6x+2)$ does go weird places between 0 and 8
17:39
@shintuku as definite integrals on $(0,\infty)$ they are not equal, though you do need to take principal values all around.
As principal values on $(-\infty,\infty)$ all the integrals are $0$
huh, up until now I thought the integral was distributive with respect to substraction
thanks a lot!
first time I hear about principal values too. time to do some analysis
17:54
@PM2Ring umm... the quadratic formula is pretty much just completing the square.
@shintuku definite integrals are, but indefinite integrals have constants of integration to worry about.
That is why people get confused about $\int\frac{\mathrm{d}x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}=\sin^{-1}(x)+C_1=-\cos^{-1}(x)+C_2$ among many others.
hm.. neither rudin nor my goto analysis book have anything about principal values, though i found Cauchy principal value on wikipedia
any clue where I could read up on it?
Wikipedia and are places to start
oh swell, thanks!
@robjohn. You are superhuman by how many questions you follow and answer
@shintuku $\mathrm{PV}\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{\mathrm{d}x}{x}=0$ The principal value can be used at a singularity and at infinity.
18:03
I guess it makes sense if you suppose opposite infinities, which increase at exactly the same but opposite rate, are zero when added together
@shintuku it is technically $\lim\limits_{\substack{\Lambda\to+\infty\\\epsilon\to0^+}}\left(\int_{-\Lambda}^{-\epsilon}\frac{\mathrm{d}x}{x}+\int_{\epsilon}^{\Lambda}\frac{\mathrm{d}x}{x}\right)$ and those integrals are negatives of each other.
noted, thanks for the help!
@robjohn Of course. I just find it more satisfying to complete the square explicitly. ;)
18:23
A few hours ago, the network was vulnerable to XSS attacks for 44 minutes. Fortunately, almost nobody noticed. meta.stackoverflow.com/q/411177/4014959
Given two sequences,

$$
u=\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}{u_i2^{ip}},\ u_i\in \mathbb{Z},\ p\ is\ prime
$$
$$
v=\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}{v_i2^{ip}},\ v_i\in \mathbb{Z},\ p\ is\ prime
$$

If we interchange two positions in sequence $u$ at positions $k, l$, such that $k>l$. All other elements in the two sequences in $u$ and in $v$ are same except the one interchanged at $k, l$ of sequence $u$. Then if we subtract the two sequences, $u-v = (u_k2^{pk}+u_l2^{pl})-(v_k2^{pk}+v_l2^{pl})$. Any hint please here?

I know that since all other terms are similar, then they get cancellled from $u,v$, but how we got as result
18:53
are you saying that $u_i = v_i$ for $i $ different to $k,l$?
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