I'm reading a proof that if $G$ is a finite $p$-group, and $r_s$ is the number of subgroups of $G$ having order $p^s$ (where $\vert G\vert=p^n$, and $s<n$)), then $r_s$ = 1 mod p. There is one (probably trivial) step that I don't understand: let $K$ be a subgroup of order $p^{s+1}$, and let $H_1,\dots,H_b$ be its subgroups of order $p^s$. We then know that the $H_i$ are normal in $K$, and $H_1H_2=K$.