so it's somewhat of an accident that so many nice functions have very slowly growing taylor coefficients. i mean it's not, they tend to solve various differential equations etc. from which the growth limitations can be deduced.
you sometimes see estimates of that type in providing that operators between various function spaces are bounded. sometimes there is general theory you can use that doesn't quantify what the value of something like tau would have to be, you can just use it like a black box.
if a function has a 'complicated' domain there's a split in opinion about what continuity and discontinuity even mean. the bourbaki books go one way and patriot americans go another.
i don't know what left and right hand limits at c can mean, if c is not at least an accumulation point of the domain of f, which it might not be for an arbitrary E.
if the domain of f sucks, there's no use to that result anyway. again, i'd ask about the intended application but i'm not sure that i want to know.
awfully late in life to realize i'm fundamentally an engineer. "what is this FOR?"
i will say broadly most results of calculus are not optimal, but seeking optimal results is often in the nature of digging rabbit holes and not finding more useful theorems. the best example of this is finding general conditions under which the FTC holds. complete waste of time for almost all purposes except that one.
i'm not an authority, others may disagree.
it's definitely useful to know that the hypotheses in calculus books can usually be weakened. it's not as useful to know how weakened they can be. there's often no best, most general result, that subsumes all of the others, as there sometimes is in algebra.
that taylor series thing from earlier is a good example of this. calculus books give conditions on the growth of the size of derivatives of f under which the series will converge to the function on some interval. are those optimal? i don't know. do you need to assume something? yes, by what sha kindly identified as borel's theorem.
i'm a big fan of being frank about the domain of f.
if it sucks, say it sucks. we all know what it means. :)
if i had to define a key difference between 'analysis' and 'algebra' broadly interpreted, it's that in algebra, 'what are both necessary and sufficient conditions for [something interesting]' is a good question with a useful answer, and analysis it is not.
some may disagree, i certainly was never the world's greatest analyst. that was the vibe that i got
it is to say that any neighbo(u)rhood of one discontinuity may potentially contain other discontinuities. a discontinuity would be 'isolated' if you could choose a neighbo(u)rhood of one discontinuity that did not contain other discontinuities.
one thing you can do to rile up brits if you are american is to misunderstand the phrase "taking the piss," which means making light of something in perhaps a mocking fashion. deliberately refuse to understand the term and repeatedly ask "what? you're taking a piss? why are you doing that? where are you doing that?" taking a piss is american for urinating.
I can't help but feel it's arrogant to say that the working class in the UK didn't know what they were voting for because of constant media bombardment, but I feel like it's also quite close to the truth.
one time driving in rural iowa i pulled up to a gas station and the guy said he couldn't sell me gas on sunday but he would loan me some until monday. i wasn't coming back, so i told him to look for his payment in his mailbox, which was right in front of both of us. it was weird theater but i respect commitment to a bit.
I just got a weird email from a British person who's a grad student in Genoa, basically saying he/she has a geometry question and am I open to helping? Can you say "vague"?
Ah, I discussed a little bit of that stuff with Sha yesterday — a trivial observation (trivial for me, not for her). I miss that stuff. ... Yeah, I actually gave a bit of advice in my answer and told him/her that the nature of the question should be included in the original contact.
I also said that my research days were long gone and I may not have anything to say.
i did not respond to the random person from brazil. i think she had gotten my information from a former officemate who had postdoc'ed at her university. i didn't see any upside in it.
there was a turkish guy who asked me for answers from one of my advisor's books and i responded because he had a hilarious myspace profile where he was shredding on an electric guitar as if it was the 1980s and i respected that.
there's often a ton of negotiation over what to do with the money left over when people don't opt in. you ideally want that pot to be as large as possible and for the judge to approve a recipient that makes you look socially responsible.
you'd prefer people to opt out and then get a headline about X going to the Coalition to Defend Puppies and Kittens, or whatever.
i'm unusually cynical today but that's how it works.
i remember phoning the CEO of a nationally known nonprofit about being the potential recipient of the leftovers of a class action settlement. i thought, there's no way this guy will even acknowledge my existence. he called back in five minutes.
I'm still failing at the getting response thing. One of my doctors' office emailed and texted me saying I was past due for an appointment. I phoned and after 10 minutes on hold, hung up. I then responded to the text. Nary a word, 4 days later.
If we know that $4x^3+b_2x^2+2b_4x+b_6$ does not divide $x^4-b_4x^2-2b_6x-b_8$ (where the coefficients lie in some field $K$), then why does that mean there exists an $x_0\in\overline K$ such that the first polynomial vanishes to higher order at $x_0$ than does the second? What does it even mean to vanish at higher order? Does that mean that the first so derivatives of the polynomial vanish too?
(Actually, I'm even given that the two polynomials are relative prime)
can you say more about that? can you think of the pairing that might associate an element of $\ell^1$ with a linear functional on $c_0$?
if i'm within epsilon of a sequence converging to zero in the sup norm, i can't be too far from zero myself. i'd emphasize that it's the l^infty norm in the first question.
Excuse me for my noob analysis question: say I have a function $f : \Bbb R \to [0, 1]$ and I define intervals $I_{n, m} := \left[ \frac{m-1}{2^n}, \frac{m}{2^n}\right]$ for $m = 1, \dots 2^n - 1$ and $[1 - \frac{1}{2^n}, 1]$ for $m = 2^n$. Then I can define simple functions $f_n = \sum_{m=1}^{2^n} \frac{m - 1}{2^n} \Bbb 1_{f^{-1}(I_{n, m})}$. These should converge pointwise to $f$, does that sound reasonable? I want to integrate $f(x) = x\Bbb 1_{[0, 1]}(x)$ wrt the Lebesgue measure
and I think one does this by defining simple functions in this way and then just hitting it with an $\int$
@leslietownes I'm going through the solution you linked now. I feel like this stuff is exactly what I need: Not being given the answer, but something that dances around it enough to calm down and think straight. :)