The perfect person is here if they do live up to their name
$ \sum_{i = 1}^{n}\bigg[\frac{X_{i} - \bar{X}}{\sum (X_{i} - \bar{X})^{2}} \bigg] = \frac{1}{\sum (X_{i} - \bar{X})^{2}}\sum(X_{i} - \bar{X})$
Are we allowed to "pull out" the denominator like that because the index $i$ is already been captured by a summation?.............that is....the denominator is just a number? @robjohn