I was reading the geometrical interpretation of Lagrange's equation and there it was written that if $z=f(x,y)$ be the solution of the Lagrange's equation $Pp+Qq=R$, then the direction cosines of the normal to the solution surface at any point are proportional to $p,q,−1$. It comes like this:
$∂f/∂x,∂f/∂y,∂f/∂z$, i.e$ (∂f/∂x)/(∂f/∂z),(∂f/∂y)/(∂f/∂z),−1$, i.e $∂z/∂x,∂z/∂y,−1$, i.e $p,q,−1$
My question is how $−1$ comes in this calculation?
There may be something silly that I am missing but I really can't figure it out.