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00:00 - 19:0019:00 - 00:00

19:00
so now i just tell them to run the cellular cosheaf instead
Oh yeah I don't help people compute that
i just tell them to
@Balarka wanna talk about some differential topology
no
im sick of talking to people about differential topology every day
@BalarkaSen wanna talk about some long twitter threads on skull measurements that start out scientifically and end up with the usual racist tropes
You know he does
19:02
lol
is that a yes
But do you have a moment to talk about our lord and saviour?
Jesus?
@AlessandroCodenotti what is it
@user2103480 of course i am not reading that
alt right sucks, they're not only bad they're also boring
19:05
@BalarkaSen probably smart, this is utter nonsense
bad + boring is a bad combination
its so common :(
@BalarkaSen No I don't have an actual topic, I was just curious if that also bores you if we talk about it every day
whats wrong with people who think twitter is the right outlet for longer texts with attempts at substantiality
theyre on twitter
19:07
@MikeMiller so tired of people still milking the culture of making fun of boring bad people
twitter is powerful engine of destruction
thats the prime mistake
also true
Balarka's very tired today
nothing to do with today
drink some Brazilian coffee
19:08
lmao what
sorry confused that with colombian coffee
Can you believe this guy?
0
Q: If $-1<\lim _{n\to \infty }\left(\frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}\right)<1$ then there exists the limit $\lim _{n\to \infty }\left(\sum _{k=0}^n\:\:x_k\right)$

shangq_touLet be $x_n$ a sequence. Prove that if $$-1<\lim _{n\to \infty }\left(\frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}\right)<1$$ then there exists the limit of the sequence $$y_n=\sum _{k=1}^nx_k\:$$ and it is finite. I am not one hundred percent that this is completely true. In any event, I managed to show that if $$0<\lim...

Look at his comments.
A @Balarka: I'm a boring bad person. What's your point?
Seems doubtful Ted
He's saying he doesn't want to read a Twitter thread making fun of you, then
19:11
lol
@Simone: The guy is an ass, but I suspect the point is to prove the ratio test theorem, not quote it.
@TedShifrin you are not that boring!
Emphasis on that
hahaha
@TedShifrin I guess, but that's not the question he asked. What an arse though
19:13
probably just didn't have coffee this afternoon
lol "your post is irrelevant"
thats a good shutdown
lmao
next time i will ask a question, and when someone responds i will say "your post is irrelevant"
I would normally be helpful and ask if he knows that absolutely convergent series are convergent, but hell if I'm going to help him.
19:14
XD
If I use the comparison test to prove the ratio test will he ask me to prove that as well?
is that how you begin writing calculus textbooks?
You're right that you shouldn't do his homework for him, regardless.
ikr
But I think my comment is the relevant one. He apparently understands the idea of the ratio test for positive series only.
Adam Curtis has a new documentary out
how do I reach these kids?
19:22
@Simone lmao great reference
has anyone ever played mafia?
it's a social deduction game
Mafia, also known as Werewolf, is a social deduction game, created by Dimitry Davidoff in 1986. The game models a conflict between two groups: an informed minority (the mafiosi or the werewolves), and an uninformed majority (the villagers). At the start of the game, each player is secretly assigned a role affiliated with one of these teams. The game has two alternating phases: first, a night role, during which those with night killing powers may covertly kill other players, and second, a day role, in which surviving players debate the identities of players and vote to eliminate a suspect. The game...
@BalarkaSen you into post/prog rock?
here you can read about the game called mafia
maybe "abduction" not deduction... and yes it's a double entendre
19:25
it's a party game
ah I thought you meant the videogame
@user2103480 yeah
@BalarkaSen I like Devo. And that's as far as my prog/rock knowledge goes
@BalarkaSen Ok I have two songs and I just can't find other stuff like that
oh i dont know devo
19:28
@BalarkaSen Yes you do, you just don't know that you know
if you have any recommendations, I'd be thankful
@user2103480 listening
@Simone oh alright lol
I should add that in both songs the rocky parts I find less cool, but the later parts are dope
@user2103480 So this is cool. Check out Haken and TesseracT
TesseracT I know, a friend of mine is a total fanboy
It reminded me of some parts from Haken's "The Mountain"
But being tortured at 9am with 20 minutes live sessions had a negative impact
19:34
lol
The rocky stuff is Floydian
but what isn't
yeah fair, timeless crap
Oh haken sounds cool, M83 type stuff
M83 is good shit
The voice is a bit more prominent in Haken songs, it seems. But I see why you thought of that. Listening to the cockroach king rn
cockroach king is A+
its heavier than the rest of The Mountain though
just heads up
the albums you should shuffle around to find what you like is Visions, The Mountain, Affinity
actually, this heavier style is more in the spirit of what I posted
19:39
then you might like Affinity because its on the heavier side
but it may be a bit too playful to be melodramatic to
Visions has a coherent story so if you like concept albums thats a good choice
@BalarkaSen definitely. I'm glad to have caught them on the last album tour
@user2103480 wow ok, parts of these are like radiohead and the repetitive postrockish/shoegazing things are like explosions in the sky
check out explosions in the sky debut album
the one where a kid is making a sandcastle on blue beach
@BalarkaSen if I could only really get warm with thom yorkes voice
19:41
in the cover
@BalarkaSen will do
@MichaelAlbanese I gave up fighting with this guy. Any thoughts?
Weirdly, anthony gonzalez (M83 guy) cut out the last verse of his song "road blaster" in his live performance. May have overcome his broken heart lmao
wait i misremembered. it's not explosions in the sky debut album
altho thats definitely a great album
let me think
frick
@BalarkaSen "How strange, innocence?"
19:48
yes
thats not it i dont know why i thought that
i will tell you the correct ref give me a minute
no hurry
a @Balarka, you can weigh in on the thing I asked Michael about. Just put away your topologist hat.
I am afraid I do not know much about holomorphic bundles
so the point of contention is whether the complexification of a real bundle is a holomorphic bundle?
I think he might be right but I am not sure... I thought I remembered that a holomorphic structure on a bundle over a complex manifold is the same data as an $\overline \partial$ operator on that bundle whose Nijenhuis tensor vanishes. If this guy's is not integrable then N(dbar) ought to be nonzero. May as well just calculate?
Actually I'm getting confused, you just need that delbar-squared is zero?
19:57
Well, he's starting with a holomorphic vector bundle (over a complex manifold), thinking of it as a real bundle and complexifying. The standard example is the holomorphic tangent bundle of a complex manifold. Complexification then splits as $(1,0)$ plus $(0,1)$.
I think you need compatibility with the base.
I don't think so. I will try to find a reference that spells out the NN theorem carefully.
So $\bar\partial (fs)$ should be what it should be.
I am not confident though NN always confused me.
I will look in Chern.
I totally think his argument is wrong.
This is different from just NN ... that's about almost complex structures on a manifold.
There is an NN variant for holomorphic structures on bundles
20:00
OK, which only makes sense over a base complex manifold.
Actually, now that you remind me, I answered a tricky question on main relating to that point ... with help from Robert Bryant.
Let me find it.
@MikeMiller Some subbundle of the total tangent bundle transverse to the fiber directions should be integrable for this to happen, I assume?
The statement i found was: suppose E -> M is a [smooth] complex vector bundle over a holomorphic manifold. A pseudo-holomorphic structure on this bundle is an operator delbar: Omega^{p, q}(E) -> Omega^{p, q+1}(E) which is C-linear. Then this bundle has a holomorphic structure (so that projection is holomorphic) and so that the delbar operator of this holomorphic structure coincides with the operator we gave, iff delbar^2 = 0.
The delbar operator is not a lift of the delbar operator of the base, yes?
20:03
This was the question on main. Not relevant, really.
@BalarkaSen Not assumed to be, nor do I know that what that means
That's the question I'm raising, Balarka.
It seems like your statement is giving a new complex structure on M apriori
Namely restrict the complex structure on E to M (M embedded as zero section of E)
I want a holomorphic bundle to have holomorphic transition functions. So I need $\bar\partial fs = f\bar\partial s$ when $f$ is actually holomorphic.
I think the claim is that this follows from $\overline \partial^2 = 0$.
20:07
It won't follow in the case the fellow is using the isomorphism $\bar E\cong E^*$. I am pretty darn sure.
It is very upsetting to me that $E\oplus \bar E$ can be a holomorphic bundle when $E$ is.
Oh, of course I did not mean to say that a delbar operator is just C-linear. It should also satisfy Leibniz. That is where your compatibiliity comes from.
Right. I'm saying Leibniz from the beginning.
So does that fail for his formula?
If you're intertwining the bundle isomorphism $\bar E\cong E^*$ using the hermitian metric, it sure will.
"Leibniz". Many are saying this. Some of the best people are interested in Leibniz. It's true.
20:09
For omega a function we ought to indeed have dbar_E(fsigma) = (dbar_M f) sigma + (-1)^{p+q} f dbar_E sigma.
@TedShifrin Let's just spell it out
No sign.
Right, thanks
f is a (0,0)-form
Hold up, I am confused. Can't you take tensor products of holomorphic bundles?
Of course.
20:11
His bundle is just C tensor E.
Oh, you tensor over C.
This is C o_R E.
No, you tensor $E_\Bbb R$ with $\Bbb C$.
So you lose the holomorphic structure and then recapture it in a subbundle.
I say you cannot simultaneously capture it in both subbundles.
So a section of this bundle looks like $f \otimes \sigma$ where $f: M \to \Bbb C$ is a real function, and you are allowed to commute real functions across either side. I bet his formula is not well-defined.
Well, sums of those, but don't shoot me about it.
Not shooting you.
He wants to say $$\overline \partial_{E'}(f \otimes \sigma) = (\overline \partial f) \otimes \sigma + f \otimes \overline \partial \sigma.$$
First: does this make sense? It seems like you are commuting things past the tensor sign to turn this into a form in Omega^{0,1}(E). But no matter.
Wedges needed, right?
One wedge.
So he's saying: Do $\bar\partial_{\bar E} s = \phi^{-1}\bar\partial_{E^*}(\phi(s))$.
20:15
I'm getting lost in the symbols.
Where you apply $\phi^{-1}$ to the vector bundle part.
I think I'm gonna leave this one to the experts. It seems like a good exercise to not get confused though.
LOL ... I wasn't trying to bug you with it. Michael's the right one, but I'm going to bet I'm right. For one thing, someone would have taught me this decades ago if it made sense.
The question is what sort of linearity $\phi$ has over complex things. If $\phi\colon \bar E\to E^*$ comes from the hermitian metric, then ...
$\langle\phi(\bar v),w\rangle = h(w,v)$ is conjugate linear in $v$.
So $\phi(c\bar v) = \bar c\phi(\bar v)$, no?
I think that messes him up.
The hermitian metric stuff all happened in your comments though. To give an answer convincing to OP you have to write down explicitly what his formula means on the bundle C o_R E, and explain why it is not complex linear.
Probably if you mention the hermitian stuff he will not buy it.
This is a doctoral student in complex geometry and Higgs stuff, apparently. Scary.
Well, I found his attitude condescending, so I'm not going any further with him, but maybe Michael will :P
20:30
scary indeed, why would anyone try to get a phd in complex geometry
I would like to understand the story so you can tell me
I do not have any intuition for holomorphic bundles
Maybe a holomorphic bundle (E -> M) is a complex vb E on a complex manifold M with a half-dimensional horizontal foliation on E
I guess Mike nailed it down a bit: We need the bundle isomorphism $\bar E\to E^*$ (the latter having an obvious holomorphic structure) to be $\Bbb C$-linear or else Leibniz won't work. This is equivalent to my wanting holomorphic transition functions in the first place.
No, first and foremost, it's a complex manifold $\pi\colon E\to M$ so that $\pi$ is holomorphic.
You can't do this just topologically.
At any rate, I definitely need $\phi(f\sigma) = f\phi(\sigma)$ when $f$ is holomorphic on the base.
Let me make it all pseudo. I have an almost complex base $(M, J_M)$, an almost complex total $(E, J_E)$ with a fiberwise almost-complex structure $J_{E/M}$.
you mean almost?
LOL
I honestly don't think this way.
So you need integrability of $J_E$ and I'm not sure.
This has confused me enough without this.
lol i am just screwing around, do not pay heed
20:41
It's just so random that this person thinks I can use any random topological isomorphism to a holomorphic bundle and it should give a holomorphic bundle structure on our crazy thing.
What exactly is it that integrates when you go from an almost complex structure to a complex structure?
I understand this in terms of the Nirenberg integrability version of Frobenius (which I referenced in my write-up I linked to earlier).
Thanks! Let me read
Here is Nirenberg's.
Let me screw around a bit more before digging in. In a local frame $(e^1, \cdots, e^n)$, suppose $Je^i = \sum_j f_{ij} e^j$. $J^2 = -I$ demands $e^i + \sum_{j, k} f_{ij} f_{jk} e^k = 0$. So that means $\sum_{j} f_{ij} f_{jk} = -\delta_{ik}$.
I suppose I could differentiate this system.
20:59
an embedded closed ball in a smooth manifold is always contained in some slightly larger embedded ball, right? extend it by a tubular neighborhood of the boundary sphere
smoothly embedded closed balls are, yeah
good luck finding ball neighborhoods of alexander horned ball
(not alexander gored ball, that's the exterior, which is not a ball)
Hello! I would like to know what exactly the relationship is of the metallic means to the diagonals of a regular polygon.
hmm yeah, doesn't seem doable for horned ball
glad I'm working in the smooth category
it is not because the horned sphere is not flat
hi @TedShifrin
21:09
If the ac structure is integrable then the eigenspaces of $J$ are integrable subbundles.
Is that sufficient?
it looks to me as if any such neighborhood would have to have sort of self-intersections
yes you will get screwed
you will get genus if you try to thicken
it is possible to define the alexander horned sphere as an intersection of nice looking closed subsets (approximating from the outside), which are all handlebodies (1/n-nbhds of the alexander horned sphere), but the number of handles go to infinity
21:32
makes sense, from the inductive pov, you get the horned sphere from the sphere by attaching a handle, cutting out a portion of that handle, attach two handles, cut out portions of these, etc.pp. metrically, these get smaller at each step and taking an epsilon-neighborhood just thickens up what you replaced the cut out portions with after a certain step, making it look like nothing was cut at all. this gets finer as you take smaller neighborhoods, so the smaller the neighborhood, the more handles
21:47
@Ted: the rain has completely disappeared here. We were supposed to have some Thursday night, but got less than .01". We were also slated to get some tonight, but that also seems to have evaporated.
Hi @TedShifrin. Maybe I'm missing something, but I believe there is a complex linear isomorphism $\Psi : \overline{E} \to E^*$. Fix a hermitian metric $h$ on $E$ (for me, $h$ is linear in the first argument and conjugate linear in the second). For $e \in \overline{E}$, then by definition of the complex-vector bundle structure, $i \cdot e = -ie$ where concatenation on the right is the action of $-i$ on $e$ regarded as an element of $E$.
Then $\Psi(e) = h(\,\cdot\, , e)$ is the desired vector bundle morphism. Note that $h(\,\cdot\, , e) \in E^*$ as the hermitian metric is complex linear in the first argument. The map $\Psi$ is complex linear as $\Psi(i\cdot e) = \Psi(-ie) = h(\,\cdot\, , -ie) = ih(\,\cdot\, , e) = i\Psi(e)$.
22:30
@Michael: That's the map I wrote down with $\phi$ above. I agree that that is an element of $E^*$. Hmm ... So you're agreeing with the OP, then that $E\oplus \bar E$ is a holomorphic vector bundle. Somehow this bothers me a lot.
So you are saying what I said exactly, I think: $\phi(c\bar v) = \bar c\phi(\bar v)$. Something's fishy.
So do I actually get $\bar\partial (f\sigma) = f\bar\partial \sigma$ when $f$ is holomorphic on the base?
Isn't the complex linear structure on bar E given by i(vbar) = (-iv)bar?
so your formula seems fine?
I dunno too confusing
LOL
I still remember the pain in getting $i$'s sorted out through complex geometry. Even Chern messed it up and I corrected it in the second edition of his beautiful little book.
But I was a lot younger and smarter then.
Beautiful
@robjohn We had a tiny bit yesterday.
I spent a couple hours today trying to understand closely related but slightly different versions of index of some operator which all differ by relatively small amounts (like, some number from 9 to 3) because I kept getting off by small constant errors in various formulae.
22:44
@MichaelAlbanese Is the complex structure on $\bar E$ you're suggesting compatible with the isomorphism $E_{\Bbb R}\otimes\Bbb C \cong E\oplus \bar E$? So, the usual game is to look at eigenspaces of $\text{Id}\pm J$. Now I'm too confused to sort this out.
And, if this is really right, why is that I was never "taught" that $E\otimes\Bbb C$ is again a holomorphic bundle when $E$ is? Were you?
I don't like to think of tensor product for complexification
I always like to translate it to $E_{\mathbb{R}} \oplus E_{\mathbb{R}}$
Can you analytically continue a function and the answer gives you a function that you can analytically continue again?
no by the identity theorem
that question is not well-posed
@Karim: That's not useful at all for complex geometry.
How do you see the complexified cotangent bundle?
22:54
I see it as real bundle direct sum with real bundle with a complex structure J on it
That doesn't help me see $T^{1,0}\oplus T^{0,1}$.
Which is essential for complex analysis/geometry.
What if you analytically continue f(x) to g(x) and then continue g(x) to h(x)?
@geocalc33 What does that mean?
$\Phi(s)=\Gamma\left(1+\frac1s\right)+\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{n!}\zeta(-ns).$
I need help understanding this formula
$\Phi(s)$ is the analytic continuation of something and I don't understand what $\zeta(s)$ means
23:03
I suspect it's the zeta function
my question is is it the analytically continued zeta function?
not sure which form it takes
I'm guessing it's in the form $\sum n^{-s}$
@MikeMiller Interesting that integers are "relatively small amounts" :)
$\Phi(s)$ converges for complex $s\ne0$ and Re(s)<1
@TedShifrin Well, O(1).
23:17
anybody have insight?
I wonder if the zeta function appears in other analytic continuations
Hm
If all prime ideals are principal, the ring is a PID, right?
If not, take the maximal non-principal ideal I. It cannot be prime (otherwise it's principal). It's contained in some prime P (Zorn) and the containment must therefore be proper.
But maximal ideals are prime?
maximal non principal doesn't mean maximal
Indeed.
why does that exist
is it clear that the ascending union of non-principal guys is non-principal
23:32
@TedShifrin "It depends upon what the meaning of the word 'is' is."
(Regarding whether $E_{\mathbb{C}}$ is holomorphic)
Michael !!
I think that by choosing a hermitian metric on $E$, you can view $E_{\mathbb{C}}$ as a holomorphic vector bundle. But it doesn't have a natural holomorphic vector bundle structure without this choice.
I find it disconcerting to think of the complexified tangent bundle as a holomorphic bundle.
At least, that's what all of this seems to suggest.
Me too.
@Thorgott now wondering this
23:34
@Thorgott Obvious
@Astyx words are cursed, switching to pictures until things have settled down
I'm still worrying, even with your sign choice, if I get the Leibniz rule with holomorphic functions pulling through $\bar\partial$.
Balarka's argument isn't finished though? Why does the containment being proper implies that the ideal is principal?
Yes, I am trying to finish it. I was thinking, pick a in P \ I. Then look at I + (a)
This is larger than I, so it has to be principal.
for the record, your statement needs fixing
are you assuming domain a priori or are you only asking for PIR as conclusion?
23:35
I don't care
It is obvious that ascending union of nonprincipal ideals is nonprincipal. Go learn some basic algebra.
im not thinking
at least not about this
Whereof one cannot speak, thereof one must be silent.
-Michael Scott
Well, I guess I need to go relearn complex geometry, too. Or quit.
but yeah if you had the union be principal it means one of the guys had the generator of the principal ideal, which means one of the guys was principal, I am guessing
23:39
That's correct.
I believe so, because $\Psi$ is $\mathbb{C}$-linear. The proposed Dolbeault operator is given by $\Psi^{-1}\bar{\partial}_{E^*}\Psi$. If $s$ is a section of $\overline{E}$ and $f$ is a complex-valued function on the base, then $$\Psi^{-1}\bar{\partial}_{E^*}\Psi(fs) = \Psi^{-1}\bar{\partial}_{E^*}(f\Psi s) = \Psi^{-1}(f\bar{\partial}_{E^*}(\Psi s) + \Psi(s)\otimes \bar{\partial}f) = f\Psi^{-1}\bar{\partial}_{E^*}\Psi s + s\otimes\bar{\partial} f.$$
Is it really $\Bbb C$-linear?
@Astyx Oh, ok, here you go. I is not prime, so there are a, b not in I but ab in I. Consider I + (a) and I + (b).
Both are principal, virtue of being bigger than I. But I = (I + (a))(I + (b)).
So I is also principal.
I guess you're effectively saying that $\bar E \cong E^*$ with the opposite complex structure on $E$.
Yes. You can view a hermitian metric as a complex bilinear map $E\otimes\overline{E} \to \varepsilon^1_{\mathbb{C}}$, so it induces complex linear maps (in fact, isomorphisms due to the non-degeneracy) $E \to \overline{E}^*$ and $\overline{E} \to E^*$; the map I called $\Psi$ is the second map.
To me, that's what $\overline{E}$ is. It has the same underlying real bundle, but the complex multiplication is the conjugate one.
23:45
So I guess the point (which I was stuck on in the first place) is that you cannot stay in the holomorphic category to make $E\otimes \Bbb C$ a holomorphic vector bundle.
Not canonically.
This is just crazy. Never in my almost 50 years of working with this stuff has it occurred to me or been mentioned that this is a holomorphic vector bundle.
But maybe the physicists do this routinely.
Yeah, it seems an unnatural thing to do.
I've never thought about it before.
Of course it shows up in characteristic classes, but there we're using hermitian structures and so who cares. But in the usual complex geometry setting, we want to think of $T^{1,0}$ and $T^{0,1}$, and one is a holomorphic bundle and one sure isn't.
Right, holomorphicity is irrelevant for Chern classes, etc.
23:49
The usual place it shows up is Pontryagin classes.
I suppose the point is that the holomorphicity of $T^{1,0}$ comes from the complex structure on the manifold, but to identify $T^{0,1}$ with a holomorphic bundle, you need to choose a metric.
And I've used it there.
Really? How so?
No, that was to Pontryagin.
Why would I ever want to even think of $d\bar z$ as something holomorphic?
I meant how does it show up with Pontryagin classes?
23:50
In fact, the whole confusion in geometry with hermitian metrics is bothersome enough. Most of the time we use it as a bilinear form on the holomorphic tangent bundle, not as a pairing of tangent and conjugate.
Oh, you define $p_j(E) = c_{2j}(E\otimes\Bbb C)$.
Up to sign.
@BalarkaSen I'm not totally convinced, we only have $(I+(a))(I+(b)) \subset I$
Oh, you were referring to complexification. I thought you meant that holomorphicity was somehow relevant.
No, sorry.
No worries.
I wonder if I should go back and look at that post again. He just irritated me, but I guess I irritated him more.
23:57
It happens. I've been told that misunderstandings on the internet are quite common.
LOL ... Well, I'm sorta curious how many people think I'm an idiot and how many think I am right :P
I don't think anyone on this site thinks you're an idiot. That question has only been viewed 56 times, and about half of those are probably due to me.
So if we change the $J$ for $\bar E$ but not for $E$, of course, then how does this mess with the usual identification of $T^{1,0}$ and $T^{0,1}$ as appropriate eigenspaces?
(I just want to point out that those are not completely incompatible :-) )
@Astyx @Astyx Oh, good point.
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