Kind of long-winded. It's something that I need to replicate a proof from a GL(n) case to an analogous Sp(2n) case. So if I can get this Y, then I can complete the proof analogously. The geometry behind it is to express decomposition of matrices through optimal mass transport.
@MikeMiller Well, but we can read off the canonical basis for the column space from the pivot columns of the REF, anyhow, but yes. I actually taught my students (influenced by Strang) about the left nullspace, as well, as its basis gives you the constraint equations a vector must satisfy to be in the column space.
@MikeMiller If you wanted a more geometric statement, I have a bundle $\pi\colon Sp(2n)\to P(2n,A)\colon X\mapsto XAX^\top$ where P(2n,A) is the image of this map (it's actually the collection of p.def. symmetric matrices with the same symplectic eigenvalues of $A$), and I want to show that the subset of the symmetric p.def. symplectic matrices is a section of this bundle.
Yeah, I ended up with pretty efficient treatments of this stuff in my books, @MikeM. But applications will use it, anyhow, so it's not like they get to forget it.
@MikeM: The first few times I taught linear algebra, I followed the textbook I was assigned (although I complained about the first one a lot and the second time was a different book I liked more), but I certainly didn't get around to writing my own course until the sixth time or so. :)
I like the book I use pretty well. I don't like to follow a book closely. If I am repeating, with the same set of ideas, and the same language, I see little value added.
@MikeM: Well, giving insight and emphasis and different examples one can still add lots to the book. Plus, most students are of one type — either learn from lecture or learn from book — rarely both.
@MikeM: I always learned more from lectures, but of course I am capable of reading a book.
But I've had students who, despite my flawless and entertaining lectures, said they preferred to stay home and read the book. When I wrote the book, I suppose that's a valid approach, but otherwise I rarely followed the book identically (even with books like G&P and Munkres, which I like a lot).
One of the reasons I retired earlier than expected is that the number of students I could not motivate to work and pass my courses had increased, and that was too frustrating to me. Not the honors multivariable course, but the other courses I typically taught.
@Semiclassic You certainly can't blame yourself. That said, I'm posting more and more that people need to make effort and/or that they certainly shouldn't be posting verbatim homework or EXAM questions.
So it was specifically because of symplectic eigenvalues that this mess was brought up anyway, but I thought I could maybe work past it (seemingly everything does, until this section part).
A fair amount of first posts are of very low quality. Even so, I think that it is not correct, when a user gets one such first post from the First Posts review queue, to simply downvote it or to vote to close it. The person who posted it should get some comment explaining what is wrong (or, at le...
I was trying to break it by finding some sort of relation between symplectic and ordinary eigenvalues but there are very few theorems I could find about these two.
@TedShifrin it's not a popular term, but if you have a p.def. symmetric P then you can find a symplectic X so that $XPX^\top$ is diag(D,D) for a diagonal nxn matrix D.
The diagonal values of D are the symplectic eigenvalues.
I am trying to use The Method of Frobenius to solve $xy'' + y = 0$. I plugged in the guess $y = x^s \sum_{n = 0}^\infty a_n x^n$ and got the indicial equation $s^2 - s = 0$ with solutions $s = 0, 1$, and the recurrence relation $a_n = -\frac{1}{(n + s)(n + s - 1)}a_{n - 1}$.
My understanding is that I am supposed to solve the recurrence relation without plugging in values of $s$, multiply the result by $s$, and take the partial derivative of that result with respect to $s$ and evaluate it at $0$. However, I'm not sure how to approach the recurrence, since knowing that $s = 0$ "behind the scenes," I can see that starting at $n = 1$ would blow up the fraction.
I'm trying to minimally understand something about vector bundles. So as far as I understand it, $n$-vector bundles over $S^4$ are classified by homotopy classes of maps $S^3\rightarrow\operatorname{GL}(4)$ since they trivialize over each hemisphere and this map describes how the fibers on their intersections are glued together. Now $\pi_3(\operatorname{GL}(4))$ has a group structure, what does it correspond to on the level of vector bundles?
Am I missing simple examples or is actually hard to come up with examples of Polish spaces of positive finite dimension for which all compact subsets have empty interior? I know that the is there Baire space in dimension zero (and in fact is the only example up to homeo) and the complete Erdös space in dimension one (all Banach spaces work in infinite dimension)
there were a lot of people who responded to "the upward acceleration is 5g" with "well, free-fall acceleration is -g (downwards). so clearly the total acceleration is 5g-g=4g!"
....no. the acceleration is what i said it was: 5g
Ah yes, the partial derivative w.r.t. the 3N dimensional vector
In the solution the prof switches to partial derivatives w.r.t. x_i and x_j and I still dont really get whether these are supposed to be 3-dimensional or actual coordinates
maybe $\frac{\partial}{\partial x}$ is supposed to be the vector consisting of the actual partials $\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}$ and then they take a dot product?
It seems to me that compact subsets are empty interior because of the same reason that R x {0} has empty interior in R x Q under subspace topology from R^2
You have accumulating lines coming at you from infinitely many dimensions
But to be compact you can only afford to take finitely many into account
@Thorgott If you choose the connected-sum disc along the equator (and your three trivializations to coincide on the connected-sum disc), then you can identify the clutching function (transition function along equator between north pole trivialization and south pole trivialization) of the connected sum as being the clutching function on the LHS and the clutching function on the RHS.
If E has clutching function f_E in pi_{n-1} SO(k), then one can identify f_{E # E'} with f_E + f_F, the sum in the fundamental group. Or equivalently with the pullback of E vee E' by the pinch map S^2 -> S^2 v S^2.
@MikeMiller having the clutching function take values in GL^+ or SO doesn't make a difference since the latter is a deformation retract of the former, I wager?