« first day (3843 days earlier)      last day (1472 days later) » 
00:00 - 17:0018:00 - 00:00

00:04
@TedShifrin I shifted the goal posts on this question.
I realized it's probably because of the poles of the function in question, and then I get that $\sum\text{zeros} = \sum\text{poles}$.
Mod the lattice, that is.
So now I am looking at poles. Which is probably something like you suggested.
@TedShifrin It's probably also due to your specialization. The complex geometry/geometric analysis prof at my old uni held lectures on: ODE & PDE, riemann surfaces, functional analysis, (linear) algebra, all the intro analysis courses, morse theory, analysis on manifolds, and index theory. And I'm sure all of this would have been no problem to you as well
I don't know if every mathematician's specialization allows for such a broad range
Well I don't think any professor of pure mathematics is not qualified to teach undergrad level analysis/algebra/ODEs or linear algebra.
Probably true. Although I think in bigger departments, this is more compartmentalized
In larger departments they prefer to have an algebraist teach algebra, etc. They also like to give some of these undergrad courses to newly hired professors (in my experience).
And why would the usual analyst care about teaching group theory and whatnot
...and why would anyone care about teaching ODE
00:16
Because they are easy to teach undergrad courses and are much more intriguing than teaching calc 1/2
So say $A$ a ring of dimension $1$. Let $J$ be an ideal of $A$ that can be factored as a product of maximal ideals, $J = P_1^{a_1} \dotsc P_s^{a_s}$ and let $M$ be any maximal ideal of $A$. Apparently $J_M = (MA_M)^{a_i}$ if $M = P_i$ for some $i$, and $J_M = A_M$ if M \neq P_i$ for all $i = 1,...,s$.

The second part is easy enough, but how do you show the first part?
@user2103480 t h i s
funnily enough, here usually an algebraist teaches ODE
$J_M$ would be $J_{P_i}$ so it would be $S^{-1}J$ for $S = A \setminus P_i$ and $(MA_M)^{a_i} = (P_i A_{P_i})^{a_i} = (S^{-1} P_i)^{a_i}$ for $S$ the same as before.
@Thorgott I assumed that this would be more along the lines of an ODE analysis course or like following Arnold's book. Not engineer-tier odes.
I wouldn't know the difference
00:27
Unfortunate. My school, too, skimped out on budget for a good ODE course.
The next-door school didn't though.
we did ODE for like a solid 4 weeks
Poor Thorgott. :(
@anakhro there's only analysis II (differentiability in R^n, implicit function theorem, point set topology and such) in germany, which is way more interesting than a usual ODE course (imo)
uh and of course analysis one
but not the calculus sequence
Î'm fine, I learned Picard-Lindelöf in that course
@user2103480 You should pick up Arnold's ODE book one of these days. See what you missed out.
00:37
that's all the ODE I need
@anakhro I did have an ODE course which fueled my scorn
Yes, and apparently it wasn't very good.
So I think it's only reasonable that you be open to there existing better courses than that which you took.
I think I saw enough. I find SDEs and (S)PDEs satisfying enough
I suppose ignorance is bliss.
If you knew for a fact that ODEs were interesting, you would have one less thing to complain about.
One can find interesting things in any area. Claiming ignorance while 3 out of 4 of my current courses are about extensions of those is a bit sensitive too, isn't it?
00:48
It's not ignorance of ODEs that I am suggesting, but ignorance of the existence of better ODE courses than that which you took.
That one might exist, but I've had exposure to ODEs in a subsequent numerical mathematics course and in probability courses. Still can't find that much aesthetic appreciation, don't think a better ODE course would have changed that. Personal preference does exist
I'll also have to learn some more related stuff for random dynamical systems
Let $t \in \mathbb{C}$, and let $A_n = e^{i(nx + y)}$ with $n$ an integer, and $y \in [0, 2\pi]$. Could someone please explain to me how to calculate
$$\int_{0}^{2\pi}e^{\text{Re}(\bar{t}A_n)}\text{ d}x$$
sub-infty-groupoid of the jet bundle or something
gottem
@Thorgott clearly an ODE
@Clarinetist you know what the real part of $A_n$ is?
that looks like a horribly ugly integral
00:56
@user2103480 Right, so that's just $\cos(nx + y)$. What is worrying me particularly is that we are trying to find the real part of $\bar{t}A_n$.
isn't e^cos not elementarily integrable or sth
Yeah, when I wrote $\bar{t}$ in polar form, I ended up with $e^\cos$ stuff
I thought maybe I did it wrong
Re((Re(t) + i.Im(t))(Re(s) + i.Im(s))) = ... product... = Re(t)Re(s) - Im(t)Im(s)
Oh, that's an idea
@user2103480 again, feel free to look at Arnold's book to see what could have been.
01:00
So let's suppose $t = a + bi$, thus $\text{Re}(\bar{t}A_n) = a\cos(nx+y) - b\sin(nx+y)$
Now the next problem is integrating that thing...
I bet there's some complex analysis that I don't know that helps with this problem
nah, no way
Well, that's unfortunate
what's the context of the problem
It's probability. $A_n$ is a complex random variable with $x, y$ uniformly distributed over $[0, 2\pi]$. I'd like to find its characteristic function.
This would be one part of a double integral that would have to be computed ($y$ would have to be integrated over $[0, 2\pi]$ as well), and then we'd have to divide by $2\pi$.
(oh, and $x, y$ are independent)
So the computation is actually
$$\dfrac{1}{4\pi^2}\int_{0}^{2\pi}\int_{0}^{2\pi}e^{\text{Re}(\bar{t}A_n)}\text{ d}x\text{ d}y$$
If this can't be done, it can't be done. I thought I would give it a shot.
01:10
I seriously doubt that's the right expression
I'm basing it on what I see here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
$A_n$ is correct as is
Uhh isn't the characteristic function defined as $\Bbb E[e^{ik^TX}]$
For a real-valued random vector, yes. For a complex one, see Wikipedia above
There is no difference to a 2-d real variable
Ah wait
your $A_n$ looks completely off to me
it should just be the density of the distribution
01:12
You're not doing the uniform distribution alone, sorry
what am I missing?
but what you're missing is the density yeah thorgott
The substitution isn't right
Isn't that provided from the $\dfrac{1}{4\pi^2}$?
Yeah too sorry I mean. The A_n is just (x,y)
The density is there, sorry
but during the subtitution you lose the random variable and just integrate over the range of the random variable
rescaled with the density
Note that you can't integrate over the random variable itself if you're not on the probability space anymore
Sorry, I've lost you there. So we have $A_n = e^{i(nx+y)}$... what do you mean by "losing the random variable"?
01:15
yeah, the integral should just be $\frac{1}{4\pi^2}\int_{[0,2\pi]^2}e^{\operatorname{Re}(\overline{t})}d(x,y)$
What I'm really confused about is how to handle $\text{Re}(\bar{t}A_n)$
duh I'm not being focused enough
do you agree with me?
I just don't know what happened to the $A_n$ in the integral you provided
@Thorgott No not completely. We need an expression of the form Re(t*z) and integrate over the square in the complex plane
Ah no now it makes sense. We don't integrate over a square
I*m just not focused enough smh
01:18
So if it's not a square, what is it...
We integrate over a circle, since that's where the random variable's values lie
huh?
we're uniformly distributed on a square
Yeah, you've lost me there. We are indeed uniformly distributed over a square.
so the pdf is 1 on the square and 0 else
the density is that of the random variable $A_n = e^{i(nx+y)}$
01:20
Does change of variables not apply in the complex probability world?
oh wait wait wait
so $X,Y$ are uniformly distributed rvs, $A_n=e^{i(nX+Y)}$ is the random variable we're looking and we want the characteristic function of that?
yeah ok, no chance
Law of the Unconscious Statistician was what I used to get to that integral
yeah, I agree it's the right integral now that I understand what you're trying to do
my advice is giving up
01:22
Okay, great. And we're in agreement that there's no amount of complex analysis learning I could do to solve that reasonably in a day or 2
Lol, k
Just from observing that definition... having that $\text{Re}(\bar{t}X)$ term in the characteristic function looks like an utter pain
Ok so I'll now do it detailed. We have a random variable with values in the unit circle in the complex plane. The density $f(z)$ I'd have to think about, but maybe one can bypass this somehow using the structure of the uniform RVs. Anyways the integral is $$\int_{S^1}e^{i\mathrm{Re}(t^\ast z)}f(z) \, \mathrm{d}z$$
Sure, but have fun finding that density
I don't even want to consider what that two-to-one-variable transformation would even look like shudders
Here's a basic calculus problem that I ran into just now that I don't remember how to show
Suppose $f$ is some smooth function such that $f(t+T)-f(t-T)=2T f'(t)$ for all $t,T$. Must $f$ be quadratic in $t$?
pretty sure the answer is yes but my face is tired
Gosh, I wish I had taken differential equations in my undergrad
(or maybe not)
@Clarinetist, so you're insinuating I'm wise for planning on taking ODE's and PDE's in my undergrad then...... :p
01:30
geometrically, this is the source. Suppose you estimate the first derivative of a function $f(x)$ evaluated at $x_i=x_0+i \Delta x$ by drawing secant lines at points $x_{i\pm 1}$ and computing the slope
@Clarinetist A wild guess would be that the argument of $e^{inX}$ is uniformly distributed on the circle on $[0,2\pi]$ (technically we need to exclude $2\pi$ but measure zero something something)
Hi @TedShifrin. If $A_n = e^{i(nx + y)}$ with $x, y \in [0, 2\pi]$ and $n \geq 1$ an integer, would you agree the following is impossible to solve given some $t \in \mathbb{C}$?

$$\dfrac{1}{4\pi^2}\int_{0}^{2\pi}\int_{0}^{2\pi}e^{\text{Re}(\bar{t}A_n)}\text{ d}x\text{ d}y$$
If f(x) is linear, that certainly just gives back $f'(x_i)$ exactly. But it seems that it also works if $f(x)$ is quadratic
What do you mean impossible to solve?
@TedShifrin Well, you end up with some $e^{\cos(\text{stuff})}$ if you convert $t$ to polar form
01:31
@Clarinetist This looks like some bessel function shenanigans
So you mean the integral cannot be done in elementary terms?
@TedShifrin Yeah, sure
Then the probability that the argument of the product of $e^{inX}$ with $e^{iY}$ lying in a an arc on the circle is the same as the convolution lying in one of the periodic intervals
I'll let you finish with Clarinetist first @TedShifrin, then I'll finish discussing what I was thinking about with regards to the problem befor eI had to go run my errands.
01:32
Jacobi-Anger is like...the only bit of Bessel function stuff which I actually enjoy
What the heck is that @Semiclassical O_o
it's not actually as strange as it looks
$e^{i x\sin \theta}$ is a periodic function in $\theta$
Lol, considering I learned what Fourier series were barely 24 hours ago, it looks strange
therefore it must have an Fourier expansion in complex exponentials
the amazing part is that the complex Fourier coefficients are just Bessel functions
i generally don't like Bessel functions but I always think that's crazy neat
a more appealing version of what I wrote above: For what smooth $f$ is it the case that $\dfrac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x}=f'(\frac{x+y}{2})$ for all $x,y$?
There's one thing that going through measure theory + probability has taught me. It's that I could not handle doing a math PhD. I have a ton of respect for people who know a field so well that they can talk about a subject, and draw connections from topology, complex analysis, measure theory, Fourier analysis, and functional analysis in a short amount of time, but I am not one of those people
01:37
Bessel functions are something you inevitably deal with in first-year physics grad school
because they show up when dealing with boundary value problems with cylindrical symmetry
(which suuuuuuuuuck)
0
Q: When localizing an ideal in a ring of dimension 1, how do you show that you get this?

BigSocksLet $A$ be a ring of dimension $1$ and let $J$ be an ideal of $A$ that can be factored as a product of maximal ideals $J = P_1^{a_1} \dotsm P_s^{a_s}$. Let $M$ be any maximal ideal of $A$. Then $J_M = (MA_M)^{a_i}$ if $M= P_i$ for some $i$, and $J_M = A_M$ if $M \neq P_i$ for any $i = 1,...,s$. T...

here's kind of an elementary ring theory question I put on main
I'd love to help, but I haven't even thought about rings since... 2013
ideally i'll never do anything with ideals again
2
understandable, I also was avoiding them since around that time, but I had a change of heart
Sorry, Semiclassic. I was thinking about your question, and then my sister and bro-in-law texted to say a present I had just sent them arrived slightly broken — so I'm a bit distracted.
01:39
oof
@Semiclassical I hope your ring homs are always injective
I was going to suggest you write out the Taylor poly of degree 2 with remainder.
Utterly random question: my nonparametric stats prof never really explained this in detail. So $e^x$ for example: you can write it as $$e^x = 1 + x + o(x)$$ or $$e^x = 1 + x + O(x^2)$$
both as $x \to 0$. Why would you choose one over the other?
01:44
listening to Dan Deacon feels like I'm going pleasantly mad
@Clarinetist Let $\rho$ be the density of a sum of uniform variables with values in $[0,2\pi]$. This has support on $[0,4\pi]$. Let an arc $A$ on the circle, for simplicity between angles $0<a<b<2\pi$, be given Then I think that roughly $\Bbb P(e^{i(nX+Y)} \in A) = \Bbb P(arg(e^{inX}e^Y) \in [a,b]) = \Bbb P(arg(\text{uniform in }[0,2\pi]) + arg(\text{uniform in }[0,2\pi]) \in [a,b] \cup [a+2\pi, b + 2\pi]) $
Now the problem is finding the density
The density for the arguments then is $\rho(x) + \rho(x+2\pi)$
@Clarinetist I don't suppose you have the argument of this exponential written out somewhere above
getting rid of the Re in favor of explicit functions
Since the arguments have values in $[0,2\pi]$ instead of $[0,4\pi]$, this still sums up to one
01:50
@Semiclassic: Better idea. Look at third degree T.P. (centered at $t$) with remainder. I think that does it.
@Semiclassical Well, let's see... write $t = re^{i\tau}$. We get $\bar{t} = re^{-i\tau}$ so that $$\text{Re}(\bar{t}A_n) = \text{Re}(re^{-i\tau}e^{i(nx+y)}) = \text{Re}(re^{i(nx+y-\tau)}) = r\cos(nx+y-\tau)$$
So you would have to integrate $e^{r\cos(nx + y - \tau)}$ with respect to both $x$ and $y$ over $[0, 2\pi] \times [0, 2\pi]$
@TedShifrin I think I get it. Suppose $f(t+T)-f(t-T)=2 T f'(t)$ for all $T,t$. Then regarded as a function in $T$, we have $g(T):=f(t+T)-f(t-T)-2T f'(t)=0$ for all $T$. In particular, we must have $g'''(0)=2f'''(t)=0$ for all $t$.
third derivative, so same basic idea as what you're saying (though probably less rigorous)
@Clarinetist hmm, that doesn't seem terrible
though I'd need to work out what $e^{i x \sin(\theta-\phi)}$ looks like to be sure
I like it, @Semiclassic.
for $\phi=0$ or $\phi=\pi/2$ one gets known Bessel function expansions
@TedShifrin same
Ok @TedShifrin, so after thinking about things I built up from the ideas of the original questions:

In the previous question I only had to deal with the second component $y$ in relation to the $x-axis$, building up from that. I now face a scenario where both components' distances are affected.

So before tackling the problem I asked myself: "what would the distance from the point $\mathbf{a} = (a,b)$ to the point on $y=x$ look like?..... Well using $y = a$ or $y =b$, you would still get a distance of $b-a$
01:54
this is based on trying to work out what a certain analysis program was doing to estimate first derivatives
I'm just going to assume it's not doable at this point if we're just looking at elementary functions
@Clarinetist yeah, definitely not
but bessel functions aren't -that- special
I'd rather run into ordinary Bessel functions than a generic hypergeometric function
@dc3rd This is back to basic geometry again (and you've learned the projection stuff early in Chapter 1, I suppose). Of course, you don't need the optimal proof, but the crucial thing is the distance from $\mathbf a$ to the line $y=x$.
oh. tangentially related to the first derivative stuff, here's another interesting geometry problem my students ran into today
Pun intended @Semiclassic
01:56
caught me
I had them using their phone cameras to take videos of them taking small balls and tossing them into the air
To prove that we don't live in a vacuum?
There are many things I'm looking forward to once this semester is done:

* (Probably) resigning from my adjunct position
* Getting vaccinated, possibly seeing people again
* Re-learning measure theory at my own pace
* Taking the stats PhD classes
hah
the idea is that the height of the ball should be a quadratic function of time, with the second derivative being free-fall acceleration $g$
@Clarinet: Unfortunately, we can't see people blithely even after vaccines. Especially with the new mutants.
@TedShifrin based on the balls today, i can't actually prove that :P
01:58
Yeah, those variants... sigh
Ah, @Semiclassic: Trying to replicate Newton :P
(even the foam balls displayed the expected behavior, rather than seeing any effect of air resistance)
anyways
Yes @TedShifrin, drawing the picture I chose the distance I chose from using the right triangle: i.e: $(a-x)^{2} + (b-y)^{2} = r^{2}$, letting $x = a$ which means $y = a$, so $r = (b-a)$
what you'd expect in particular to see, upon plotting the (numerically estimated) first derivative is linear behavior
I don't think that's quite right, @dc3rd.
01:59
and most people did
but a few people were seeing curvature in these plots
Very cool @Semiclassic. Did they fudge like we all did in HS science?
ehh, not too much I think. videos don't permit that as much
I'm just glad that I've finally decided in my head that I can't continue this adjunct job past this semester. Creating a course from scratch with no (great) textbook, teaching it for 2 years, and then teaching it online is not an experience I'd like to go through again.
@Clarinetist oof
Yeah, teaching is hard enough with a course in existence and a good book.
02:00
i don't consider my teaching job to be sustainable, but at least i'm not expected to create a new course on my own
I think some of the faculty think I might teach the freshman-level course of the class I currently teach... it's going to be a no for me there
anyways. after working it out, I think the curvature is because it's hard to toss the balls straight up. inevitably, there's some deflection side-to-side.
I am really happy with how it turned out, though. Getting over imposter syndrome and having sophomore-level community college students competing against graduate-level students and placing in data competitions is something I'll be proud of, but I cannot continue trying to keep up with the changing tech.
that's fine if said horizontal motion remains the same distance from the camera
but if said motion brings the ball away from/closer to the screen, then there's an issue of perspective
same distance in reality looks smaller if placed farther away
well let's see, the distance from $\mathbf{a}$ to any point on the line $y=x$ would be $(a-x)^{2} + (b-x)^{2} = r^{2}$ correct?
02:04
so the acceleration looks faster/slower when the ball is closer/farther from the screen
and since the motion is smooth, I think that makes the acceleration look as though it varies when it doesn't
going to test that with some linear perspective calculations i think
For the right $x$.
hmm, maybe i can make it even simpler
So then the question now becomes, what is that right $x$?............let me try some stuff. 3 mins....
If I let $x =a$ or $x = b$ I still end up with $b-a$, but you're saying that won't help me.............
@Clarinetist And thaat just turns out to be $1/2\pi$. But I'm now left with $\frac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} e^{i(t_1 \sin(\phi) + t_2 \cos(\phi))} \, \mathrm{d} \phi$
@user2103480 that's where bessel functions come in
02:15
It's fine, thanks for your help @user2103480. I've given up on that approach for now.
Wolfram alpha returns that the real part of this is the bessel function of the square root of $t_1^2 + t_2^2$
yeah
I can explain that much easily
and the imaginary parts are zero
Let $T=\sqrt{t_1^2+t_2^2}$. Then we can write $(t_1,t_2)=(T\cos\theta,T\sin\theta)$ for some $\theta$
so that is nicer than I thought modulo bessel functions
02:17
at which point $$t_1\sin \phi+t_2\cos\phi=T(\cos\theta\sin\phi+\sin\theta\cos\phi)=T\sin(\phi+\theta)$$
But it's a periodic integral, so one can eliminate $\theta$ by shifting $\phi\mapsto \phi-\theta$
at which point the integral is $\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} e^{ i T\sin \phi}\,d\phi$
and Jacobi-Anger tells you that's just $J_0(T)=J_0(\sqrt{t_1^2+t_2^2})$
So not horrid
and not utterly shocking, either: Bessel functions can show up when doing Laplace transforms
@dc3rd Seriously, are you drawing pictures? Use projection stuff from Chapter 1.
Yeah it seems okay. And the only nontrivial assumption I made in the probability part of this was assuming that $e^{inX}$ has the same distribution as $e^{iX}$ for $X$ uniformly distributed on $[0, 2\pi]$
couldn't tell you about that, though I see the sensibility behind it
May be wrong lol gotta think about this
02:22
something something wrapping n times around the circle
@TedShifrin, I am drawing pictures, but I guess I'm not gleaning from it what I'm supposed to.....😔
... where did this problem come from @Clarinetist
it amounts to "if I take a uniform r.v. between 0 and 1, multiply by a particular integer $n$ then take the fractional part, do I still get a uniform r.v. between 0 and 1"
this seems insidious for homework
and I can't see why not
02:23
@user2103480 It's a problem I made up, just in the interest of learning about characteristic functions for complex random variables.
lmao what
adjunct life
Closest point on the line?
you should say that beforehand, I spent like an hour on this in the belief that this has a nice closed form solution
Yeah, I've not calculated the characteristic function of a complex random variable before, and I naively thought it would be just as easy as it is in the real case.
02:25
which it incidentally had but that was extremely unlikely
I have definitely learned my lesson
and again, nice modulo wolfram alpha or modulo physicist
Although I gotta hand it, that was a smart problem statement of yours by choosing the right interval of the uniform distribution
Did you do this on purpose, thinking about going around the circle a random number of times?
It is related to a HW problem I have, so that's where the interval came from
is this a HW problem out of a textbook
or from the prof's brain
It was inspired by a prof's homework problem
02:29
gotcha
https://i.sstatic.net/Osnog.jpg

@TedShifrin
Combination of a prof's problem, plus me naively thinking that characteristic functions of complex random variables would be easy
we got nerd sniped
for reference: xkcd.com/356
So what point on the line $y=x$ is closest?
02:37
Well visually, it is the point that would be under the "right angle" box I drew......so right now I'm just thining of how to describe it mathematically
Man, you have zero high school geometry.
You have a 45-45 right triangle.
I have been working through a high school geometry textbook since our discussion last week. So I'm working on it. ...but with regards to this, if I have an angle it means I should be able to get the length of that line then
@user2103480 That's been me working on some of the last questions I've worked on.
@dc3rd Yup. You know the hypotenuse of that right triangle. Here comes your $\sqrt 2$ you're in love with.
02:53
If I'm looking at it correctly....the hypotenuse is $(a-x)^{2} + (b-x)^{2} = h^{2}$....for hypotenuse of the right triangle, and then taking square root
@Clarinetist btw, this bessel function $J_0(\| t \|)$ should be the characteristic function of all random variables of the form $\exp(i(a_1X_1 + ... + a_n X_n))$ with $a_i$ integers and $X_i$ independent uniform on $[0, 2\pi]$
since these should all be uniform distributions on a circle
03:22
Something went a wry @TedShifrin..................so in my quest to find the point I set up the following:


$sin(\frac{pi}{2}) = \frac{\text{opposite}}{\text{hyp}} = \frac{(a-z)^{2} + (b-z)^{2}}{(a-x)^{2} + (b-x)^{2}}$, where I let $z$ be the value of the desired point.

which yielded:

$1 = \frac{(a-z)^{2} + (b-z)^{2}}{(a-x)^{2} + (b-x)^{2}}$, now if my diagram is correctly drawn then $x = a$ and so my denominator simplifies and with a rearrangement I have:

$(b-a)^{2} = (a-z)^{2} + (b-z)^{2}$
04:04
@dc3rd: This is an isosceles right triangle (both legs have the same length). The hypotenuse has length $b-a$, so both legs have length ....
Hi again, @Ted.
@TedShifrin. I don't know what it is explicitly, but I know whatever that length is, it will be the radius I need for my ball. As for finding that length....Well I will give you an explicit answer in a day or so as I continue my geometry review and I'm getting to the chapter on triangles..........this geometry issue of mine is so damn sad, but I'm glad it was discovered now as I'm in self study instead of when I begin live courses again in the summer.
So I'll leave that as it is for the moment. You've helped plenty without giving me an answer....I owe it to myself to work on it from here.
Well an idea did pop up in my head to find that length.....law of cosines, or parallellogram law.....one of the two...I can't remember which one...
123
123
04:46
Hello World..
05:22
length of side is $\frac{(b-a)}{\sqrt{2}}$.............
06:18
Hi @Semiclassical
Is there a theorem that proves this true
seems kinda sus to me tbh
No, because it's false.
ok
if I have X=AB, how do I solve for B?
assuming all are invertible matrices
and all NxN
oh wait
so A^-1X=B ?
@BalarkaSen
Is there a question here which you cannot answer by thinking for more than 2 seconds?
2
i am small brain
i need to rubber duck
but if X=AB, B=(A^-1)X, right?
just want to make sure i'm not losing my mind
I'm gonna assume that that is true
what exactly are I_n and I_m
I think 'I' is typically used for the identity matrix
are these just identity matrixes with different dimensions?
06:40
Have you even read your textbook?
bold of you to assume i can read
I didn't buy a text book
Just full sending it
@BalarkaSen o/
07:21
@Semiclassical How do you think of the spin group
08:17
never heard of them, do they have a youtube video?
i got bored reading my quantum computing for everyone.
 
2 hours later…
10:17
does anyone know how to justify the last line? imgur.com/a/YiA6W7N
why is $$\nu_{2}(\nu_{1}(f - \nu_{2}(f)))^2 \leq \nu_{2}(\nu_{1}(f - \nu_{2}(f))^2)$$
r9m
r9m
11:09
@Robjohn special avatar for this week?! XD
11:29
@r9m is there something different?
r9m
r9m
11:45
@robjohn it's not a mean square anymore ,.. :P
12:36
@porridgemathematics are these probability measures
13:03
user2103480 yes
user2103480 it just follows by jensens
(applied twice)
13:55
If $k$ is a field and $k'/k$ be a field extension and $k'=k[a]$ where $a\in k'$ and $k[a]$ is a ring generated by $a$, then $a$ is algebraic over $k$?
yes, prove it
what is the strongest shape?
$k[x]\to k[a]$ by $f\mapsto f(a)$ then $k[x]/(p(x))\simeq k[a]$ and $p(x)\in k[x]$ has $p(a) = 0$ right?
14:16
yes
though you have the fix the small gap arguing why the kernel is non-trivial
$k[a]$ is a domain. So $p(x)$ is irreducible so it's non-trivial
that's not a correct argument
the kernel of a ring hom into a domain can very well be zero
Then how should be the argument?
if the kernel were zero, the map would be an isomorphism. tell me why that's a contradiction.
14:36
well then $a$ would be transcendental
@Thorgott but I think this is not what you intended
that's not a contradiction, because that's what we're trying to prove
look at your setup again. there's one hypothesis that you haven't used at all so far and that is absolutely crucial.
My question is how are boundary conditions useful to me given the fact that I have integrated the function and have obtained the general solution.
Hmm I am kind of curious about this now too. What if you had $\Bbb Q[\pi]$?
14:47
@Thorgott $a\neq 0$ and $k'$ is a field so $a$ has a inverse but not for $x$ in $k[x]$?
yes
$k[a]$ is a field by assumption, $k[x]$ isn't
Got it
you can also use the fact that $a$ has an inverse to directly derive a polynomial relation it satisfies
@r9m it might only be a cruel heart for now, but it will always be a mean square.
@love_sodam nice, I'm glad I learned this
15:03
did you know ants can lift 10-100 times their weight?
Given a ring and its localization at a max ideal, what's an easy way to see the preimage of an ideal in the localization is contained in the max ideal?
I know it's an ideal in the original ring I guess. The original ring is also a noetherian domain of dimension 1
@geocalc33 I'm glad I don't have any 2 pound ants in my house. I might get carried away.
too many extraneous details
prove the general fact that if $S$ is multiplicative, prime ideals in $S^{-1}R$ correspond to prime ideals in $R$ that are disjoint from $S$
I assume you meant prime ideals, because this is false for not necessarily prime ideals (the preimage of the entire localization isn't contained in the max ideal, obviously)
Oh well the original ring also is a UFD
but for ideals I mean
idk what that is called
I think maybe Dedekind domain when the other conditions hold
as I said, these details are extraneous and obfuscatory
15:15
oh ok
but yeah, the book just says any random ideal in the localization
@Thorgott yeah this is true. they call that map $j^{-1}$ in the book
I mean, it's clearly false for a non-proper ideals
being more specific, they say $I \subset A_M$, but yeah I imagine they mean it has to be proper
it's true that the preimage of a proper ideal is contained in the maximal ideal you localized at
I'm not entirely sure whether it still is a 1-1 correspondence for not necessarily prime ideals off the top of my head, but you didn't ask for that
9
Q: Are triangles the strongest shape?

ConifoldThey are according to the buzz on the Internet (and most stable too), despite competition from circles. Mythbusters even proclaim that "triangles are the strongest shape because any added force is evenly spread through all three sides". Is there a way to make some precise sense of the question,...

@Thorgott yeah so this is the one I am not so clear on
15:21
what happens to an element not in the maximal ideal when you localize at the maximal ideal?
it becomes invertible
that's all
@geocalc33 Interesting that domes and arches are not triangles, then...
So I have to see that elements of an ideal of the localization are not invertible.
well if they were the ideal could not be proper
wow ok
yeah
15:30
nice, thank you
@robjohn yeah I've been reading more about strength of shapes and it's more involved than I previously thought. Domes apparently spread out the force evenly so they are strong
@geocalc33 Yep. That's why they are used by the ancient Greeks and Romans.
I may become an architect
@robjohn I am trying to design a shape that can hold 2,000 times it's weight
16:22
so, in a noetherian domain of dimension 1, $A$, $A$ having unique factorization of ideals is equivalent to each localization at a max ideal having unique factorization of ideals. In the proof, they show that each ideal in the localization, $I$ factors as a power of the maximal ideal $M A_M$, which I find kind of interesting. I guess it makes sense because the localization is local, so there are not any other choices...
00:00 - 17:0018:00 - 00:00

« first day (3843 days earlier)      last day (1472 days later) »