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17:03
@user3559014 cool cool good luck
Yeah, this map makes sense and the fibers are complex lines (they're parametrized by the last homogenous coordinate), but how to identify this with the tautological bundle in a well-defined manner is what I'm struggling with.
To identify a fiber of the tautological bundle with C, I have to pick a non-zero element and then the elements of this fiber scale inversely with this choice of generator, which is awkward (this is what I've been mitigating with picking a generator on a sphere and then complex conjugating in the second coordinate).
@Thorgott Easier to go the other way, I think. I haven't thought through the details though; maybe you're right and it's hard to right down?
I think the map from the tautological bundle to this bundle should be explicit since you've made the choice by picking a point in the tautological bundle.
Could be wrong though.
A point in the tautological bundle looks like $([x],v)$ with $v\in\langle x\rangle$. I want a point in $\mathbb{CP}^{n+1}$ that looks like $[(x,\lambda)]$ for some $\lambda\in\mathbb{C}$, so the question is how to get some $\lambda$ from the $v$ in a well-defined manner, which runs into the "identifying the fiber with $\mathbb{C}$" issue I mention (at least I don't see a better way).
but, I mean, there has to be a better way
or wait
I think there should be something not too painful, but you may have to get your hands dirty. After all, "projection" uses a dot product. So maybe you're right that you have to use a sphere somewhere.
It wasn't clear to me that you had this picture of what the natural map from CP^{n+1} - pt to CP^n was, and that's what I wanted stress
Ted would know the answer right away
here's the thing: my explicit form involves complex conjugation, so it doesn't work for RP instead of CP, but the picture still suggests the analogous thing is true for RP, doesn't it?
17:15
Well, complex conjugation shows up in the dot product over C
So I'd just expect it not to show up over R
Anyway, let me say how to finish the job. E is homeomorphic to an open disc bundle in E. D(E)/S(E) is a one-point compactification of that open disc bundle, and hence homeomorphic to a one-point compactification of E. But CP^{n+1} is a one-point compactification of CP^{n+1} - pt.
right, that makes sense
So for $A$ a commutative domain, $\cap_{P \in Max(A)} (A_P)_Q \subset A_Q$ where $Q$ a particular max ideal.
but why
nvm it's bc $A_Q$ = one of the $(A_P)_Q$, when $P = Q$, and the intersection of all of them is gunna be in there
17:38
Quick question, why is the following invalid?: $$-1=\sqrt{(-1)^2}=\sqrt{1}=1$$
oh wait sqrt(1) is multivalued
nvm
because $\sqrt{x^2}=|x|$, not $=x$
similar question to the above one. also start with $A$ a commutative domain, $S$ a multiplicative subset of $A$.

$S^{-1}\left( \bigcap\limits_{P \in Max(A)} A_P \right) \subset \bigcap\limits_{P \in Max(A))} S^{-1}(A_P)$

but I'm struggling to see why
17:58
take an element in the LHS, note it's contained in the RHS
by virtue of writing it down exlpicitly
$m \in LHS \Leftrightarrow m \in \{ (a,s) \vert a \in A_P \forall P \in Max(A), s \in S \}$ whereas $n \in RHS \Leftrightarrow n \in \{ (a,s) \vert (a,s) \in S^{-1}(A_P), \forall P \in Max(A) \}$
@Thorgott ah, thank you
@Thorgott yeah I was trying to do that but the note part is where I got stuck
write things as fractions instead of this obfuscating notation
obfuscating is a matter of opinion
but I will give it a go
18:01
well, this notation is also plain wrong here, because you have to think of all of these $A_P$ as embedded in the fraction field of $A$, otherwise taking the intersection doesn't even make sense
(or well, you can technically do it, but it's rather meaningless)
I don't understand...
they do that anyway, but it still makes sense yeah
they say $A \subset A_P \subset A_{(0)} = K$
yeah, that's the only reasonable way to do it
sure yeah, I guess I had that in mind
but uh, yeah, $m \in LHS \Leftrightarrow m \in \{ a/s \vert a \in A_P \forall P \in Max(A), s \in S \}$ and $n \in RHS \Leftrightarrow n \in \{ a/s \vert a/s \in S^{-1}(A_P), \forall P \in Max(A) \} \Leftrightarrow \{ a/s \vert a \in A_P \forall P \in Max(A) \wedge s \in S \}$
kinda weird. I wrote it and they look like the same set
cause you're being sloppy with the RHS
that's gotta be it
18:14
hi chat
hiya
Any progress on the associate problem?
not yet
I gave up on it after a bit
18:19
I think the C(R,R) example is the right way to think about it
In the sense that the answer lies in the fact that you have an "orientation" on the spectrum, and enough elements in the spectrum to construct similar examples
That makes it make sense that it fails in general, for me, but not that it works in any PIR.
@Thorgott this chat is the scorpion:
lol
@MikeMiller Yeah that's the point, like while I was explaining through examples they are like, there's an easier way, so I will do that. So I did examples but I kept on insisting the pivot variables and free variables picture so they have something to fall upon.
:deepfried_joy:
18:27
But doing examples is the key thing. I had to show them the mess so that they were convinced that it is a mess and I wasn't taking good examples or using some trickery
actually, the subring generated by $(1,0,1),(1,0,-1),(1,1,1)$ is just the entire ring, isn't it
Yeah mb
but wait, that is a PIR, no?
Yes, but $(1,0,-1) = (1,0,1) \times (1,1,-1)$ so they're associates
oh, the example doesn't work
oops
18:42
1
Q: How is this possible regarding theta?

user15072279 Here, $\theta = d\theta$. Therefore, we can say $s$ is almost like a line. Then , that makes it a triangle. I have read that to find $\theta$, we say it is $\theta = S / H$. Now , let us say theta is a final velocity at of particle $P$ at $A$ and initial velocity of particle $P$ at $B$. Then , ...

Please help in this
Tautological bundles, holomorphisms, subrings.................now things have gone way above my paygrade........whew.
I'm thinking, what would be an example of a geodesic metric space that is never uniquely geodesic?
so between any two points you can always find more than one geodesic?
@robjohn, @TedShifrin, @anyoneWhoLikesWordGames!!:
in Cafe and Tavern on the math.se, 5 mins ago, by amWhy
Let's anticipate Valentine's Day! How many words with four or more letters can we create from the letters in VALENTINE'S DAY? Word Challenge!!!
@monoidaltransform R^2 with the taxicab matric
there you have uncountably many geodesics between any two distinct points, even
18:53
how do you formally prove this?
@Thorgott
you can just write enough of them down explicitly
if you understand this visually, it will be clear how to
I suggest drawing a picture
so for my question up there, it's not quite right to say $a \in A_p \forall P \in Max(P)$ in the $RHS$ I think
@Thorgott so this was the problem I think
more specifically, you can't just require that every fraction be in a form with the same denominator
eh, that's badly worded; I mean you can't require that an element of the RHS has a representation as element of $S {-1}A_P$ with the same denominator for every $P$
right, so intuitively the RHS is "bigger" since it could contain various representations of a given element in the LHS
19:26
I don't see why with the taxi cab metric (0,0) and (0,1) have more than one geodesic connecting them
@Thorgott
Hi all
oh, you're right, they don't
seems like finitely many
so how would we resolve that issue?
i think he would have suggested a new example if that was immediately clear
I thought for a minute and don't see a good trick
19:38
yeah, this example isn't salvageable
and I don't have an alternative off the top of my head
what is the question
@BalarkaSen what would be an example of a geodesic metric space that is never uniquely geodesic?
what makes a metric space a geodesic metric space?
so between any two points, we can always find more than one geodesic between them
@copper.hat there's a geodesic between any two points
19:41
Symbol-free definition
A geodesic metric space is a metric space if it satisfies the following equivalent conditions:

Given any two points, there is a path between them whose length equals the distance between the points
hmm, I actually have to think for a sec whether that's equivalent to the defn I have in mind
distance being path length in a $\mathbb{R}^n$ sort of way?
what's the definition you have in mind, @Thorgott ?
i mean could i take a 2 point graph with 2 equal length edges between them?
19:43
i mean of course, locally geodesics are unique there
@MikeMiller Thanks!
I dunno. What if you paste two copies of R along Q?
@BalarkaSen I'm not sure I understand
I had an isometric embedding of an interval in mind, but I came to the conclusion that's equivalent
Non Hausdorff junk. Hate it!
19:47
what that space looks like
Not a metric space, just a thought.
non-Hausdorff metric space, you love it
I think you want to do a transfinite construction
Start with R
Add infinitely paths between any two points, all of which have the same length as the original distance between those two points
You have to do it at every point, which does not seem possible.
Do the same on each of the new paths
19:48
what's a transfinite construction?
Rinse lather repeat
@copper.hat take two points on the same edge, neither of them being one of the vertices you started with, there's only one geodesic between them: the part of the edge they lie on that's between them
I described roughly what I mean, I'm not gonna be more precise than that
I doub't that's gonna be metric, Mike
I'm content that this ought to work
19:49
sounds very non-first countable
Yeah this is not gonna be a metric space
@MikeMiller where can I find a more precise argument for that
Do you think I would have written this if I had a reference man
you used the term transfinite construction
I didn't mean reference for the construction
for the term
I'm not interested in googling for you
19:51
all I found was something on free algebras, not topological spaces
None of us know the answer, bottom line. I bet it's not possible, but I am also not willing to bet too much.
You should ask in the main site
thank you any ways @BalarkaSen
the concept of transfinite recursion should be covered in any text on Set theory
e.g. Halmos
@BalarkaSen could you perhaps please elaborate on why you think the construction Mike mentioned isn't a metric space... and first countable @Thorgott, please?
@Thorgott thanks!
at an intuitive level
honestly, I think the bigger issue that Mike's construction doesn't seem to converge to anything
19:59
I see
but is it Cauchy?
@Thorgott so let's say we just have 2, $a/s \in S^{-1} A_P \cap S^{-1} A_Q$. It could be the case that $A_P = 4 \Bbb Z$ and $A_Q = 6 \Bbb Z $ and $S^{-1} = \Bbb Z_{>0}$. So we could write $4/2 = 6/3$, but $6 \notin A_P$ and $4 \notin A_Q$. So $a \notin A_P \forall P \in Max(P)$ necessarily, but you could find $s$ such that $sa \in A_P$ I guess.
$A_P=4\mathbb{Z}$?
yeah?
oh at the end $P$ varies
so I guess I am abusing notation
Hi guys,
I want to calculate gradient ability for cars. Can you help me?
20:12
Just kind of looking at how it would work in one example and how I should write out what the set contains. still can't write it down sadly
I found some formulas but they didn't work for me.
but $4\mathbb{Z}$ isn't a ring
oh right, we like rings with unity here. I forget a lot
I guess if we just had them be $A$-modules
shouldn't be too bad
well, for $A$-modules, localization commutes with intersection
that's cool, but I guess I still wanna prove the one inclusion
although it probably doesn't work for infinite intersection?
idk
not 100% on that
20:21
sure, it works for infinite intersections
most rings have infinitely many maximal ideals, I think
I mean... take my example to the extreme. $S^{-1}(n \Bbb Z) = \Bbb Q$.
$\bigcap^\infty S^{-1} n \Bbb Z = \bigcap^\infty \Bbb Q = Q$, but $S^{-1} \left( \bigcap^\infty n \Bbb Z \right) = (0)$
This is tangential, but there was some issue about localization and intersection that I am not able to remember. Was it that $S^{-1} A = \bigcap_{\mathfrak{p} \subset A \setminus S} A_{\mathfrak{p}}$ is not true for arbitrary multiplicative sets $S$ in general?
$A$ is a domain, and intersection happens in quotient field.
idk what happened to my message
$S^{-1}(n \Bbb Z) = \Bbb Q$.
$\bigcap^\infty S^{-1} n \Bbb Z = \bigcap^\infty \Bbb Q = \Bbb Q$, but $S^{-1} \left( \bigcap^\infty n \Bbb Z \right) = (0)$
does the maximum metric on $\mathbb{R}^2$
work fo my question
better
$S = \Bbb Z_{>0}$
just in case @BalarkaSen comes up with some dirty multiplicative set
20:29
@BalarkaSen yeah, I think that's it
Cool, thanks
@monoidaltransform that is just the taxicab metric rotated.
@Thorgott so I guess it is not necessarily the case
I don't know what you're trying to do, but $n\mathbb{Z}$ is not a localization of $\mathbb{Z}$
$n \Bbb Z$ is just a submodule of $\Bbb Z$
you localize wrt $S = \Bbb Z_{>0}$
So I guess you could say you localize at $0$? unsure of the terminology
Hi @TedShifrin
20:34
Hi, Big.
localizing at $\mathbb{Z}_{>0}$ is the same as localizing at $\mathbb{Z}\setminus\{0\}$
correct
my "works for infinite intersections" comment was for the containment that you initially wanted
oh I thought you meant about localization commuting with intersection
localizing modules commutes with finite intersections, but not with infinite ones as your example shows (but their still is the same one-sided containment as you're trying to prove for rings)
20:36
Seems like a hifallutin' way of saying $\Bbb Q$.
yeah cool cool. still kinda choking on simply writing down the rhs though lol
@TedShifrin what does?
Localizing at $0$.
@copper.hat what do you mean? what two points have only one unique geodesic between them under the maximum metric?
oh yeah, the flutes are high there for sure
hey Ted, I have a question
20:38
Oh oh
@monoidaltransform no, i mean the taxicab metric is essentially the same as the $l_\infty$ metric.
in $\mathbb{R}^2$.
remove the point $[0\colon...\colon0\colon1]$ from $\mathbb{CP}^{n+1}$, the remaining lines project to lines on $\mathbb{CP}^n$, giving us a bundle $\mathbb{CP}^{n+1}\setminus\{[0\colon...\colon0\colon1]\}\rightarrow\mathbb{CP}^n$. what's the nicest way of seeing this is actually the same as the tautological bundle?
I was talking about this with Mike earlier, but we weren't sure how clear this is/should be
I say it's the dual of tautological, I think.
the contradictory bundle
Nice one. We should call it that.
20:42
Hi
Is it true that trace commutes with Laplacian?
In my point of view it is true because $\Delta T_{kl}=g^{ij}\nabla_i\nabla_j T_{kl}$ and we know that any trace commutes with covariant derivative.
I think you're right but the indices can only obscure your point. If this is true then it should be obviously true in more invariant notation by appeal to axioms (eg, how covariant derivative relates to the metric).
$O(-1)$ is a neighborhood of $\Bbb{CP}^{n-1}$ in $\overline{\Bbb{CP}^n}$. This follows from the description of blowup, for example. By changing orientation, you obtain $O(1)$ is a neighborhood of $\Bbb{CP}^{n-1}$ in $\Bbb{CP}^n$.
@Thorgott This is why they were giving us such a hard time about O(-1) vs O(1). The first one is the one that's naturally equivalent! We were dualizing the whole time.
This is clearly the normal bundle of $\Bbb P^n$ in $\Bbb P^{n-1}$1, via tubular neighborhood theorem, a @Balarka.
Surely the line above a given line in CP^{n-1} is canonically identified via dot product as the line of functions on the given line.
20:46
The normal bundle is $\mathscr O(+1)$ for "obvious" reasons. Now I would like to find a global holomorphic section.
Line line line line.
@MikeMiller Hi Mike. thanks for response. so if a tensor were trace free then its Laplacian is also trace-free?
I don't want to leave the holomorphic category, you damn topologists.
I dunno. I don't like to think about this stuff. Was just raising my opinion that indices obscure.
Whose lines are on display here? ...
My lines. Line's line. Line line line line.
20:50
ok, I'm not familiar with the abstract viewpoint, but I assume this dualization is why there was a complex conjugation appearing in my explicit homeo?
That should be correct.
@Thorgott Yeah, this is great. Notice that over RP^n there is O(n) for n in Z/2!
That's why O(1) = O(-1) there, no complex conjugation
I have assigned this problem many times, but I haven't thought about it so I have to rethink. But I'm 99% sure it's $\mathscr O(1)$.
Yes, $\Bbb R$ is very boring. $\Bbb Z/2$ instead of $\Bbb Z$.
You are correct, of course.
Mike's proof should be that a Möbius strip with two half-twists is a cylinder.
20:53
These guys want to see O(1) and O(-1) are isomorphic as real bundles, where their definitions for O(1) and O(-1) are such that it is not a tautology.
Hence the struggle.
Tautological is, in fact, tautological, and $\mathscr O(1)$ is the dual.
so that I can follow this conversation, what's this O(-) stuff
sheaf of germs of holomorphic functions (polynomials) homogeneous of degree $k$.
So the identification of ([z_0 : ... : z_n]) is with ([z] = [z_0 : ... : z_{n-1}], f), where f(z) = z_n.
Canonical as hell.
20:55
Haha, Ted rekt Thorgott.
Now he has to untangle the algebra to understand.
Perfect exercise.
I can just feel a @Balarka smirking.
@Thorgott Ted is being too canonical for my taste. O(-1) is the tautological bundle and O(1) is its dual. We were not being canonical enough to see the right answer.
So my taste was not canonical enough for this problem, and you had to get a complex geometer to fix my mess.
all this canonicity is overwhelming me
21:00
It seems I have to learn what an Ising model is now.
I need to do some stuff in the kitchen, but will try to find a holomorphic section whilst there.
You're a categorist, I would think that canonicity is ... natural ... for you!
No applause or boos? Ah well.
Your joke sucks
Give me that T-shirt
Lol
Good reference
21:11
What did Jordan say to Chad?
Such a clean room.
21:23
Good evening to all users connected to the chat.
Please, is there someone that is also an user of Physics.SE?
@Balarka @MikeM @Thor: I'm stooopid. Of course there are obvious holomorphic sections which are zero precisely on a hyperplane (divisor) of $\Bbb P^n$. Join the point you're at in $\Bbb P^n$ to the point of projection $[0,\dots,0,1]$ and intersect that line with the plane $z_j = 0$ ($j\ne n+1$).
0
Q: Different frequencies and the same $n-$revolutions

SebastianoThe frequency $\nu$ it is defined as: $$\nu=\frac1T \tag 1$$ where with $1$ indicate one cycle and $T$ the period, i.e. when a material point completes a complete circle. If I want generalize the $(1)$, I write: $$\nu^*=\frac{n}{\Delta t}$$ where $n\in \Bbb N\smallsetminus\{0\}$ is the number of ...

One can check easily that (a) this is a section of the given line bundle; (b) it is holomorphic.
This is my question....
@Sebastiano this is DiffGeometry.SE
21:27
@monoidaltransform Oh excuse me very much. Then I have wrong the room.
@monoidaltransform, no that was AlgGeo.SE
my bad @Sebastiano. I meant this is AlgGeo.SE
@monoidaltransform Don't worry :-)
@monoidaltransform With your name, there should never be any doubt.
@Balarka @Thor: So this line bundle (which we were earlier calling by its sheafical name) is usually called the hyperplane section bundle because its sections vanish literally on hyperplanes.
@TedShifrin everything is diff geo up to canonical iso
21:30
No, that's definitely not so.
Even in my world, it's not so.
Trend is that everything is AlgGeo
Hi @Astyx
hi
Just a few days ago @polite was doing baby analysis. I wonder what happened.
Salut, @Astyx.
Salut
21:32
I'm thinking a lot about mass-transport lately.
OK, @Balarka, mr topologist, you buy what I just typed (in the two things)?
Yeah I agree of course
I haven't at all, but I'd love to hear it
LOL, OK. You and your silly orientation reversals.
PDE or probability, Balarka?
Closer to probability, but I don't know PDE manifestations really
21:35
I see
@Thor: Was that not seeing directed at moi?
@Astyx You remember the grandparent graph, right?
Yes
@Thor: In what context are you learning about these bundles? What course?
Consider the following automorphism-invariant random subgraph of the grandparent graph: Do not pick any grandparent-grandchild edge. At any vertex $v$, there are three parent-child edges, and one of them points towards the end $\xi$ that has been marked in the grandparent graph. Do not pick this edge. So you have to decide, out of 2 edges, which one to pick. Toss a coin to decide this.
This gives a random subgraph, by tossing an unbiased coin independently and identically at every vertex $v$ to pick out one of these two parent-children edges pointing away from the end.
21:40
topology
So if I get this right, you get a bunch of semi lines and one line right?
Yes, but no lines, right? There will be no bi-infinite line, at best you will get a ray as an infinite connected component.
this was part of a homework sheet, the point of which was to derive that the powers of a generator of $H^2(\mathbb{CP}^n)$ generate $H^{2k}(\mathbb{CP}^k)$ for $k=1,...,n$ from the Thom isomorphism with the help of noting that the Thom space of the tautological bundle is $\mathbb{CP}^{n+1}$
At worst you will have a bunch of segments
So some rays union some segments
Ah, so very much a topology course.
21:43
Well, there is a probability event that you get a line, but its negligible (probability zero)
Ok, we agree
LSS
LSS
Hey guys, someone is physicist here?
What do you call a physicist?
LSS
LSS
Well, someone with knowledge of physics in at least undergraduate nivel, to answer a question i have XD
21:45
Ask your question and you'll see if someone answers
LSS
LSS
Ok thx
It is about EPR paradox
So it is possible to argue with mass-transport that in a unimodular transitive graph, you will never have such scenarios. You can never have an automorphism-invariant model of a random subgraph which has infinite connected components consisting of a single leaf and all other vertices degree 2.
unimodular = ?
Oh sorry, that's a name for "mass-transport holds", $\sum_x f(o, x) = \sum_x f(x, o)$ for any vertex $o$. This was equivalent to some condition about stabilizers.
$|\text{Stab}(x)y| = |\text{Stab}(y)x|$ I think
For any pair $x, y$.
Ok ok
21:48
Proof: Given any vertex x, send mass 1 from x to the leaves of the components of x in the random subgraph. If there are no leaves, don't send any mass.
This is a automorphism-invariant transportation scheme, because the random subgraph is automorphism-invariant.
By the way, by automorphism invariant random subgraph, you mean that $P(\phi(G) =x) = P(G=x)$ where X is the random graph?
I think what you mean to say by that is the same as saying, given a collection of edges e_1, ..., e_n, P(e_1, ..., e_n is in the random subgraph) = P(ge_1, ..., ge_n is in the random subgraph) for any automorphism g, yes?
LSS
LSS
I am not sure yet what exactly is the paradox they talk about,
It is the paradox of know the position and momentum of one particle at the same type?
Or it is the fact that information will travel faster than light using this point of view?
Or, for example, two particles go out a singular particular, conserving angular and linear momentum, if an experimenter A measure Sx, we know what will be Sx of ther other particle, but the other experimenter B can measure Sz directly from the other particle, so we tecncially know Sz and Sx at the same time
Yes that's it
Cool yeah so that's exactly it
LSS
LSS
21:51
singular particle*
No I didn't set it up correctly.
Given any vertex x, send mass 1 from x to the unique leaf of the component of x in the random subgraph, if there is in fact a unique leaf. Otherwise, send no mass.
Is that probabilistic? in the sense that you don't consider a realization of the random subgraph but you take the expected value?
Exactly!
The expected mass transferred is the correct transportation scheme to look at
Ok I follow
So the expected mass sent from any vertex has to be at most 1, right? I mean hell the random mass sent from any vertex is at most 1.
21:58
Yeah
But if an infinite component with a unique leaf appears with positive probability, then the leaf will receive infinite mass some time, from all the other vertices in the component
I guess one thing isn't clear; why is a certain vertex such a unique leaf with positive probability?
if that's argued we're done, because then with positive probability a certain vertex will receive infinite mass hence infinite expected mass as well
I mean, the probability of that happening is 1 no?

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